2019 KCSE Prediction Questions and Answers - All Subjects

2019 KCSE Prediction Questions and Answers - 2019 Predictions ✅ KCSE Online Revision

Physics Paper 1 - 2019 K.C.S.E Prediction Set 1

Section A (25 Marks)

Answer all the questions in this section

1. Draw a section of the main scale and full Vernier scale that would give a reading of 3.07 cm (1 mark)

2. Figure 1 shows a burette partly filled with a liquid. The liquid was initially at the level shown.

If the 400 drops of the liquid each volume 0.015cm³ was removed from the burette, mark the new level of liquid in the burette (1 mark)

3. A block of metal of mass 150g at 100oC is dropped into a lagged calorimeter of heat capacity 45 JK-1 containing 100g of water at 25oC.

The temperature of the resulting mixture is 34oC. Determine the specific heat capacity of the metal block. (Take the specific heat capacity of water as 4,200 J/kgK) (3 marks)

4. An object is placed on water and it floats. Write an equation connecting all the forces acting on the body. (1 mark)

5. Figure 2 shows a 150 g mass tied on a string and whirled in a vertical circle of radius 30 cm with a uniform speed.

At the lowest position of the circle the tension is 9.5 N. Calculate the speed v of the mass(3 marks)

6. Figure 3 shows two systems of spring arragements A and B. The springs are identical and have a spring constant K

a. State with a reason which system of springs is stiffer (2 marks)

b. On the axes provided, sketch the graphs of systems A and B assuming that the springs obey Hooke's law

c. Determine the value K if the extension in system B was 25 cm (2 marks)

7. A piece of paper is wrapped round the joint of a rod partly made of iron and partly wood so that some of the paper is over the iron rod and the other part over the wooden rod as shown in Figure 4

When a bunsen flame is passed over the paper several times it is observed that the paper gets charred or blacked on the region covering the wooden rod while the one covering the iron does not.

Explain this observation made (2 marks)

8. A meter rule of mass 50 g is balanced by masses 35 g and 15 g suspened from its ends. Find the position of its pivot from 25g mass (3 marks)

Figure 5 shows a bunsen burner which is used for heating substances in a laboratory. Use the information given to answer Questions 9 and 10 below

9. Explain the principle of worklikng of a bunsnen burner (2 marks)

10. Give a reason why the Bunsen burbner in the Figure 5 has a wide base (1 mark)

11. Water rises up in capillary tubes but mercury which is also liquid, falls in capillary tubes to a level below the outside surafce as shown in Figure 6.

Explain this observation. (2 marks)

12. State the molecular difference between a real gas and an ideal gas (1 mark)

SECTION B (55 Marks) Answer all the questions in this section

13. a. Figure 7 shows a car braking system. The brake fluid is an oily liquid

i. State the principle by which a car braking system works (1 mark)

ii. State one property of the brake fluid used in this system (1 mark)

iii. The cross-sectioanl area of the master piston is 5.0cm2 . A force of 1540 N is applied to the master psiton.

Calculate the force exerted on each slave piston by the brake fluid given that the cross-sectional area of each slave psiton is 7.2 cm2(3 marks)

b. A diver is 15 m below the surface of water in a dam as shown in Figure 8

If the density of water is 1000 kg/m3 and gravity is 10N/kg, determine

i. The total pressure acting on the diver given that the atmospheric pressure at this place is 1.0 × 105 N/m2 (3 marks)

ii. Dam walls are made wider at the bottom than at the top. Explain (1 mark)

c. Water in a measuring cylinder is placed in a refrigerator and allowed to cool from about 15oC to 0oC.

Assuming the water does not freeze, sketch on the axes provided the graph of Volume of water against temperature (1 mark)

d. Figure 9 shows a column of air trapped by mercury thread 5 cm long. If the atmospheric pressure is 750 mmHg, determine the length of the air column when the tube is horizontal (3 marks)

14. a. Figure 10 shows a car of mass m moving along a curved part of the road with a constant speed
Explain why the car is more likely to skid at point B of the road if the speed is not changed (2 marks)

b. A particle P tied to a string is moving in a horizontal circle about O as shown in Figure 11. Particle P moves with a constant speed v

i. State what provides the centripetal force. (1 mark)

ii. Use an arrow to indicate the direction in which the net force F acting on P will act (1 mark)

iii. Give a reason why particle P above experiences centripetal acceleration even thopugh it is moving with a constant speed v (1 mark)

c. Figure 12 shows two masses 0.2 kg and 0.4 kg connected by a string through a hole on a smooth horizontal surface

The 0.2 kg mass rotates in a horizontal circle of radius 4 cm. Calculate the angular velocity of the mass when the system is in equilibrium. Take acceleration due to gravity, g= 10 m/s2 (3 marks)

d. A jet starts from rest with a uniform acceleartion of 500 m/s2 . how long does it take to cover a distance of 40 km? (3 marks)

15. a. A horizontal force of 50 N is applied on a wooden block of mass 2.5 kg placed on a horizontal surface.

Given that the coefficient of kinetic friction between the surface and the block is 0.5, determine the acceleration of the block (3 marks)

b. Figure 13 shows a graph of velocity aginst time for a ball bearing released at the surface of a viscous liquid

i. Write an expression/equation connecting all the forces acting on the ball bearing parts

I. AB (1 mark)

II. BC (1 mark)

ii. Indicate on the graph the terminal velcoty Vt of the ball bearing (1 mark)

c. Figure 14 shows a pulley system being used to lift a load of 150 N by applying an effort of 60N

i. State the velocity ratio of the pulley system (1 mark)

ii. Calculate the efficiency of the pulley system (4 marks)

d. Show that the velocity ratio of a wheel and axle machine whose cross-section is shown in Figure 15 is given by V.R. =R /r where R is the radius of the wheel while r is the radius of the axle (2 marks)

16. a. Define the term "specific latent heat of fusion" of a material (1 mark)

b. A metal bar of mass 30 g and specific heat capacity 880 J/kgK is placed in a small furnace. Figure 16 shows how the teperature of the metal bar varies with time t in seconds

i. State what happens to the bar betwen t = 600s and 1000s (1 mark)

ii. Calculate the energy supplied to the bar between t = 0s and 600s (3 marks)

iii. Between t = 600s and 1000s the furnace supplies 30 joules of energy per secodn to the bar.

Calculate the specific latent heat of fusion oof the metal bar (3 marks)

17. a. State Archimedes' principle (1 mark)

b. The system in Figure 17 below is in equilibrium

i. When the temperature of the water is raised the system is observed to tilt to the right, state the reason for this observation (2 marks)

ii. Calculate the apparent loss of weight of the metal block N given the dimensions of the block are 2cm × 2cm × 6cm (3 marks)

iii. Determine the apparent weight of the metal block N (2 marks)

iv. How far is the metal block N from the pivot? (2 marks)

Physics Paper 2 - 2019 K.C.S.E Prediction Set 1

SECTION A (25 Marks)

Answer all the questions in this section

1. Figure 1 shows a plane mirror, a point object (P) and the position of the observer's eye. Show whether the observer will see the image of the object point P or not. (1 mark)

2. State one difference between a lead-acid battery cell and a Leclanche cell (1 mark)

3. A form one student at Elimu Girls' High School connected a simple electric circuit as shown in Figure 2 below.

State and explain the observation made on bulbs B1 and B2 when switches S1 and S2 are both closed (2 marks)

Figure 3 shows an X - ray tube used to produce X - rays. Use it to answer questions 4 and 5

4. Give a reason why;

a. The metal target is made to rotate (1 mark)

b. Lead metal is used to shield the X-ray tube (1 mark)

5. The X-ray tube in Figure 3 produces elctrons which are accelerated by a p.d of 12 kV. Assuming all the enrgy goes to produce X- rays, determine the maximum frequency of the X-rays produced. (Planck's constant h= 6.62 × 10-34 Js) and charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C) (3 marks)

6. Figure 4(not drawn to scale) shows a bright electric bulb placed behind a screen which has a hole with an object cross-wire. A concave mirror of focal length 30 cm is placed in front of the screen.

The position of the mirror is adjusted until a sharp image of the cross-wire is formed on the screen Detrmine the distance between the mirror and the screen (1 mark)

7. In a house, there is a cooker rated 6 kW. The mains potential is 240 V and the fuses available are 35A, 30 A, 15 A and 13 A. Determine the fuse that would be suitable for the cooker (3 marks)

8. When X- rays are passed above the cap of a positively charged electroscope it is observed that the leaf divergence decreases. Explain this observation (2 marks)

9. Several 200 Ω carbon resistors are to be connected in a circuit so that a current of 2A flows from a 50 V source. Determine how many resistors are required. (3 marks)

10. Figure 5 shows part of a wiring circuit for a house Correct two faults made in the wiring (2 marks)

11. The current of elctrons hitting the screen of a C.R.O is 15 mA. Given that the charge of one elctron is 1.6 × 10 -19 C, determine the number of electrons that hit the screen per second (2 marks)

12. Figure 6 shows an electromagnetic spectrum in the increasing order of wavelength from X to Y

a. Identify the region of the spectrum labeled C (1 mark)

b. Give one similarity between the spectrum labeled B and the visible light (1 mark)

13. Give a reason why electrical power is transmitted over long distances at high voltage (1 mark)

SECTION B (55 Marks) Answer all the questions in this section

14. a. State what is meant by thermionic emission (1 mark)

b. Figure 7 shows a beam of cathode rays entering the space between two charged metal plates.

Continue the dotted line to show the path of the cathode rays as they travel between the plates and into the space beyond the plates (1 mark)

c. Figure 8 shows a cathode ray tube of cathode ray oscilloscope (C.R.O)

i. Name the parts labeled A and D (2 marks)

ii. What property does the part labeled B have for its efficient functioning (1 mark)

iii. State the function of the part labeled C (1 mark)

d. The figure below shows the trace on the screen of an ac signal connected to the Y plates of a CRO with time base on Given that the time base control is 50 ms/div, determine the frequency of the a.c signal (3 marks)

15. a. A piece of light object (cork floats on the surface of water as shown in Figure 9 below. A straight edge vibrator placed at point A of the ripple tank generates water waves which travel towards point B
i. Successive waves pass the cork every 0.4 secodns and the speed of the wave is 0.5 m/s. Determine the wavelength of the waves (2 marks)

ii. Indicate on the diagram the direction in which the card moves as the waves pass on it (1 mark)

b. Figure 10 shows a ray of light travelling from water towards its interface with air. The critical angle, C of water is 49o

i. Skecth the path of the ray on the diagram above after striking the interface at I. An angle if incidence, θ = C. Label the ray as R1 (1 mark)

II. An angle of incidence θ >C. Label the ray as R2 (1 mark)

ii. Calculate the absolute refractive index, n, of water (3 marks)

c. A student struck the prongs of a tuning fork agaisnt a hard surface in the laboratory. The prongs vibrate producing a longitudinal wave passing through air as shown in the Figure 11

i. Label the compression and rarefaction regions in the longitudional wave. (1 mark)

ii. Using a lline with a double arrow, indicate on the diagram a distance d equal to one wavelength of the wave (1 mark)

iii. On the diagram, show with an arrow the direction of motion of the air particle P as the waves pass (1 mark)

d. State one advantage of optical fibre cable over conventional copper cables as used in telecommunication (1 mark)

16. a. Figure 12 shows ammeters and resistors connected to a battery of em.f. 15.0 V and negligible internal resistance

i. Find the reading of the meter P

ii. If the resistance R1 is 1.2 Ω , determine as shown in figure 1 the values of R2 b. Figure 13 shows two charged plates P and Q one is earthed and the other is connected using a copper wire to the cap of an elctroscope which was initially unchanged.

State what happens to the leaf of the eletrocope when plate P is moved sideways while keeping plate Q and distance of separation constant. (1 mark)

c. Figure 14 shows a circuit where a battery of emf 4.5 V, switches A and B, two capacitors C1 = 0.4 μF and C2 = 0.6 μF and a voltmeter are connected.

Determine the voltmeter reading when

i. Switch A is closed and switch B is open (1 mark)

ii. Switch A is closed and opened, and then B is closed (3 marks)

d. Figure 15 shows a conductor C placed on a negatively charged polythene rod. Identify the charges on conducto C and sphere S when C is connected to S using a wire

Conductor C (1 mark)

Sphere S (1 mark)

17.a. Figure 16 below shows a steel bolt being magnetized Identify the pole P and Q of the resulting magnet

b. Figure 17 shows an electric device running on a battery i. Name the parts labelled X and Y (2 marks)

ii. Given the direction of rotation of the coil is as shown in the diragram, indicate the poles of the magnet on the diagram

iii. If the battery was replaced with a copper wire, sketch on the axes below a graph of induced current against time flowing through the variable resitors if the coil is made to rotate as it is in the figure above (1 mark)

iv. Suggest an improvement that can be made to increase the magbitude of induced current in (iii) above

c. The input voltage of a transformer is 220 V and its output voltage is 12 V.

When a 60 W bulb is connectd across the secondary coil, the current in the primary coil is 0.32 A.

Determine the efficiency of the transformer (3 marks)

d. One of the causes of energy loss in a tranformer is through fromation of eddy currents. State one way in which eddy currents lead to energy loss in a transformer (1 mark)

e. Figure 18 shows a connection to a three pin plug i. Identify the leads labelled B and C (2 marks)

ii. Give a reason why the pin onto which lead A is connected is normlly longer than the other two pins (1 mark)

18. a. Figure 19 shows a human eye with a defect

i. Name the defect (1 mark)

ii. State one possible cause of this defect (1 mark)

b. A lens forms an image that is four times the size of the object on a screen. If the distance between the object and the screen is 150 cm, determine;

i. State with reasons what type of lens was used (2 marks)

ii. The focal length of the lens (3 marks)

c. A barber holds a concave mirror a short distance from his client's face. Given that the described arrangement is as shown on Figure 20 and the radius of curvature is 40 cm

i. draw on the same figure, a ray diagram to show the position of the image of the client's face (2 mark)

ii. Use the ray diagram to determine the magnification of the image (1 mark)

Physics Paper 3 - 2019 K.C.S.E Prediction Set 1

Question 1

You are provided with the following apparatus

  • Micrometer screw gauge

  • A plastic drinking straw

  • A white label with a horizontal line across the centre

  • Some plasticine mass 5.0 g

  • Half a meter rule

  • A 200 ml beaker

  • A 100 ml measuring cylinder

  • Two rubber bands

  • Seven shoe tacks

  • Electronic beam balance

  • Jockey

  • Proceed as follows a. Place the seven shoe tacks on the eletronic beam balance and record the mass M. M=...........................kg (1 mark)

    b. Given that W = 1.429 M, where W is the weight of one tack, determine the value of W (1 mark)

    c. i. Fix the half meter rule vertically agaisnt the measuring cyliner using rubber band with the zero mark of the half meter rule at the bottom of the measuring cylinder

    ii. Measure 150ml of water using the beaker and pour it into the measuring cylinder.

    iii. Roll the plasticine into a spherical ball and push one ened of the straw into the plasticine to block one end

    iv. Insert the drinking straw with the plasticine into the mesuring cylinder such that it floast vertically

    v. Remove the straw and fix the white label at 4 cm above the plasticine so that the line at the centre runs horizontally. Ensure the line is submerged under the water as shown below

    Record the position of the horizontal line as indicated on the half meter rule Lo = ..........................................cm (1 mark)

    vi. vii. Also record this value in the table as L when there is no shoe tack in the straw. Insert one shoe tack into the straw and record the new level L of the horizontal line in the table. Repeat the procedure for each number of shoe tacks indicated while recording the level each time.

    Complete the values of L with number of stacks on the table below (6 marks)
    d. On the grid provided plot a graph of h against N (4 marks)

    e. Determine the slope S of the graph

    f. Given the upthrust U of one shoe tack is given as U = 4πS/10000, determine the value of U (2 marks)

    g. Determine the apparent weight of one shoe tack (2 marks)

    Question 2

    You are provided with the follwoing

  • A carbon resisitor marked X
  • Resistance wire marked R
  • Micrometer screw gauge (to be shared)
  • Voltmeter
  • Ammeter
  • Resistance wire mounted on a wire labelled L
  • A cell, Cell holder
  • Centre-zero Galvanometer
  • 8 connecting wires
  • jockey a. Using the micrometer screw gauge, measure and record the diameter D of the resistance wire R

    provided

    D...................................(m) (1 mark)

    b. Setup the following circuit

    i. Record the voltmeter reading when the switch is open

    E=.............................................. V (1 mark)

    ii. Close the switch and record the voltmeter and ameter readings V and I V=...............................................V (1 mark)

    I=................................................A (1 mark)

    iii. Now connect the voltmeter across the carbon resistor X and record voltmeter reading V1 V1=...............................................V (1 mark)

    iv. Compare the values of V and V1 giving a reason why they are different (2 marks)

    v. Calculate X1 given that X1 =V1/I

    vi. Calculate the inetrnal resistance r of the cell given that r = (E−V)/I (2 marks)

    vii. Calculate X2, given that E = I(X2+r)

    viii. Calculate X the average values of X2 and X1

    c. Connect anothe circuit as shown below

    i. Move the sliding pointer along the resistance wire until the galvanometer reading comes to zero. Recor L1 and L2

    ii. Obtain the value of the unknown resistance R given that R /X =L1/L2

    Interchange the positions of R and X and repeat the procedure in i above and acalculate the value of R using similar argument

    L1......................................L2.............................................(1 mark)

    d. i. Calculate the average values of R (2 marks)

    ii. Given that, R= 35S/100πD² (2 marks)

    Mathematics Paper 1 - 2019 K.C.S.E Prediction Set 1

    Section I (50 marks)

    Answer all the questions in this section

    1. Use logarithms to evaluate (4 marks)

    log 0.0430/22.43 + 13.67

    2. Solve for x in the equation given below (3 marks)

    92x+1 = 30 − 344x 3. The lengths of a triangle are in the ratio 5:6:9. if its area is 250√2, calculate its perimeter (4 marks)

    4. Simplify completely without using mathematical tables or calculator (3 marks)

    5. Four metal rods of length 15x3h2y, 3x2yh5and 9x4y2h are to be cut into smaller pieces of the same length such that there is no metal left. What is the maximum length of one of the pieces (1 mark)

    6. Given that the log 2 = 0.30103 and log 7 = 0.84510, find without using mathematical tables or calculator, log 9.8 (3 marks)

    7. Given that 3x − y = 17, find the value of y2 + 9x2 − 6xy − 9 (2 marks)

    8. The center of a circle is C (6,7). A tangent to the circle passes through the point P (8,3) lying on the circle. Find the eqaution of the tangent (4 marks)

    9. Coffee grade 1 at sh 30 per 50 g is blended with coffe grade 2 at sh 20 per 25g and the mixture is sold at sh 96 per 100g at a profit of 22%.

    Calculate the ratio in which the two brands of coffee were mixed. (4 marks)

    10. In the figure below, O is the centre of the circle which passes through thepoints C, T and D. CT is parallel to OD and line ATB is tangent to the circle at T. If the angle BTC is 44°, find the size of angle TOD. (3 marks)

    11. Two similar solids have masses of 1000g and 1728g. if it costs Ksh 1080 to paint the outside of the larger solid, how much will it cost to paint the outside of the smaller solid (3 marks)

    12. The figure below shows part of a circle. AB = 12 cm and CD= 6 cm. AC = CB. Calculate the shaded area. (4 marks)

    13. Three interior angles of a polygon are 155° , 153° and 160° . Each of the other interior angles is 148°. How many sides does the polygon have (3 marks)

    14. Write down the inequalities that describe the set of points in the unshaded region P. (3 marks)

    15. The position vectors respectively. Given that the length of AB is 7√2, find the value of b. (3 marks)

    16. A line segment AB is shown below. Construct a triangle CBA = 30° .

    Hence use the constructed line AC to find a point T such that B divides At in the ratio 5: −2 (3 marks)

    Section II (50 Marks)

    Answer Five questions only from this section

    17. A cylindrical tank is to be constructed. A model of the tank is made such that it is similar to the actual tank.

    The curved surface area of the model is 2160 cm² and that of the proposed tank is 135m2

    a. Given that the length of the model is 6cm, calculate the height of the tank in metres. (3 marks)

    b. Caculate the volume of the model given that the diameter of the actual tank is 14 m. (3 marks)

    c. Determine the volume of the actual tank in m3 (2 marks)

    d. The actual tank is used to store some liquids whose density is 0.82 g/cm3 . If the tank is half full, determine the mass of the liquid in kg. (2 marks)

    18. a. A bus travelling at 99km/hr passes a check point at 10.00 a.m and a matatu travelling at 132 km/h in the same direction passes through the check point at 10:15 a.m. If the bus and the matatu continue at their uniform speeds, find the time the matatu will overtake the bus. (6 marks)

    b. Two passenger trains A and B which are 240 m apart and travelling in opposite directiosn at 164 km/h and 88km/h respectively approach one another on a straight railway line.

    Train A is 150 metres long and train B is 100 metres long. Determine time in seconds that elapses before the two trains completely pass each other. (4 marks)

    19. a. On the grid provided, draw the garph of the function y = x²+x+9 for -3

    x -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3
    y 9 9 21
    b. Calculate the mid-ordinate for 5 strips between x = −2 and x = 3 and hence use the mid- ordinate rule to aapproximate the area under the curve between x = −2, x = 3 and the x - axis

    c. Assuming that the area determined by inetgration to be the actual area, caluate the percentage error in using the mid-ordinate rule. (2 marks)

    20. On the graph paper provided plots the points P (2,2) Q (2,5) and R(4,4). a. Join them to form a triangle PQR (1 mark)

    b. Reflect the triangle PQR in the line X = 0 and label the image P'Q'R'. (2 marks) c. Triangle PQR is given a translation by vector T(2 2) to P"Q"R". Plot the triangle P"Q"R". (3 marks)

    d. Rotate triangle P"Q"R" about the origin through −90o . State the coordinates of P'''Q'''R'''. (3 marks)

    e. Identify two pair of triangles that are direct congruence (1 mark)

    21. Three warshisps P,Q,R are at sea such that ship Q is 400 km on a bearing of 030o from ship P. Ship R is 750 km from ship Q and on a bearing of S60oE from ship Q. Ship Q is 100km and to the north of an emeny warship S.

    a. Taking a scale of 1 cm to represent 100 km, locate the position of ships P,Q,R and S. (4 marks)

    b. Find the compass bearing of:

    i. Ship P from ship S (1 mark)

    ii. Ship S from ship R (1 mark)

    c. Use the scale drawing to determine

    i. The distance of S from P (1 mark)

    ii. The distance of R from S (1 mark)

    d. Find the bearing of

    i. Q from R (1 mark)

    ii. P from R (1 mark)

    22. A certain number of people agreed to contribute equally to buy books worths shs. 1200 for a school library. Five people pulled out and so the others agreed to contribute an extra sh. 40 each.

    Their contribution enabled them to raise the sh. 1200 expected

    a. If the original number of people was x, write an expression of how much each was originally going to contribute (1 mark)

    b. Write down the expression of how much each contributed after the five people pulled out. c. Calculate how many people made the contributions (5 marks)

    d. If the prices of books before buying went up in the ratio 5:4, how much extra did each contributor give. (3 marks)

    23. PQRS is a trapezium where PQ is parallel to SR. PR and SQ intersect at X, so that SX = KSQ and PX

    = hPR wher k and h are constants. Vectors PQ = 3q and PS = s,SR = q

    a. Show this information on a diagram (1 mark)

    b. Express vector SQ in terms of s and q (1 mark)

    c. Express SX in terms of k, q and s (1 mark)

    d. Express SX in terms of h, q and s (1 mark)

    e. Obtain h and k (4 marks)

    f. In what ratio does X divide SQ? (2 marks)

    24. A solid cylinder has a radius of 21cm and a height of 18 cm. A conical hole of radius r is drilled in the cylinder on one of the end faces. The conical hole is 12 cm deep. If the material removed from the hole is 22 /3% of the volume of the cylinder, find: (Use π = 22/7)

    a. The surface area of the hole(5 marks)

    b. The radius of a spherical ball made out of the material (3 marks)

    c. The surface area of the spherical ball (2 marks)

    Mathematics Paper 2 - 2019 K.C.S.E Prediction Set 1

    SECTION I (50 Marks) Answer all questions in this section

    1. When asked to find 7/18 of a certain number, Juma found by mistake 7/8 of it. Hence the answer was too large by 105. Find the number. (3 marks)

    2. Simplify leaving the answer in the form of a√2 + b√5 where a and b are constants. (3 marks)

    3.a. Expand completely (x-0.2)5 (1 mark)

    b. Hence use your expansion to find the exact value of (9.8)5 (2 marks)

    4. The figure below represents a solid cuboid ABCDEFGH with a rectangular base. AB = 12 cm, BC = 10 cm and CH = 5 cm. M is the midpoint of GH

    Calculate the anle between BM and CE (3 marks)

    5. A ball allowed to drop from a height of 16 cm on to a flor rebounds to 3 /4 of its previous height. Find the total distance the ball wil have travelled when it hits the ground for the tenth time correct to four significant figures. (2 marks)

    6. Calculate the standard deviation for the distribution below (4 marks)

    No. of
    children
    0 1 2 3 4 5 6
    No. of
    families
    4 2 4 7 8 3 2
    7. Make x the subject of the formula (3 marks)

    Y=MX/X²+F

    8. A triangle whose area is 7.2 cm² is mapped onto a triangle whose area is 3.6cm² by the matrix given below. Find the two possible values of x. (3 marks)

    9. Simplify completely the expression (3 marks)

    10. Find the amount after 3.25 years if Kshs 234,000 is invested at 10% p.a compunded semi annually. (3 marks)

    11. In the figure below XY and YZ are chords of the circle centre O. XY = 6 cm and XZ = 9 cm.

    Find

    a. The value of angle XYZ

    b. The length of OZ

    12. In the figure below PQRS is a rectangle. PQ = 30cm and PS = 10 cm

    The unshaded portions are cut off leaving a parallelogram ABCD

    Given that line BQ = DS = x cm and line CQ = SA = 3x cm. Find the value of x when the area of the parallelogram ABCD is maximum (4 marks)

    13. The figure below is a sketch of the graph of the quadratic function D = k(x-2) (x+1). Find the value of k. (3 marks)

    14. Evaluate without using mathematical tables or calculator (2 marks)

    15. The figure below shows a circle passing through the origin cutting through P (K,0) and Q (0,K). If its radius is 3√2, find the equation of the circle in the form of x2 + y2 +ax + by + c = 0 (4 marks)

    16. A quantity Q varies jointly as the square root of X and inversely as Y. Given that when Y is reduced by 20% and X increased by A%, Q increased by 37.55 %, find the value of A. (3 marks)

    SECTION II (50 Marks)

    Answer any Five Questions from this Section

    17. The table below shows income tax rate for the year 2014

    Income in Kshs per month Rate %

    Income in Kshs per month Rate %
    1 - 9680 10%
    9681 - 18800 15%
    18801 - 27920 20%
    27921 - 37920 25%
    Over 37920 30%
    a. In the tax year of 2014 the tax of Kamau's monthly income was Ksh 10,880. If he is entitled to a tax relief of Ksh 1156.

    Find

    i. Gross tax of Kamau (1 mark)

    ii. Taxable income per month in shillings (5 marks)

    b. Apart from basic salary, Mr. Kamau also earns a house allowance of Ksh 12, 000, a medicall allowance of Ksh 3,060 and a hardship allowance of Ksh 4,635. Find the his basic salary per month (2 marks)

    c. Other deductions for Kamau include; SACCO loan kshs. 3000, SACCO contributions Ksh. 6,000 and hire purchase repayment Kshs. 2,000. Calculate Kamau's net pay per month (2 marks)

    18. Water flows through a cylindrical pipe of diameter 8.4 cm at a speed of 50m/minute. a. Calculate the volume of water delivered by the pipe per minute in litres. (π=22/7) (3 marks)

    b. A cylindrical storage tank of radius 105 cm is filled by water from this pipe at the same rate of flow. Water begins flowing into the empty storage tank at 9.30 a.m and is full at 2.00 pm. Calculate the height of the tank in metres. (4 marks)

    c. A family consumes the capacity of this tank in one month. The cost of water is sh 50 per thousand litres and fixed basic charge of Ksh 1650 per month. Calculate the cost of this family's water bill for a year. (3 mks)

    19. The position of two towns A and b on earth's surface are (60oN, 36oE) and (60oN, 144oW) respectively. Taking the radius of the earth as 6370 km and π =22/7

    a. Calculate the shortest distance between A and B in km to 1 dp. (2 marks)

    b. Calculate the distance between A and B along the parallel of latitudes in km (2 marks)

    c. Another town C is 840 km east of twon B and on the same latitude as town A and B. Find the position of town C. (3 marks)

    d. If an aircraft leaves town A at 8.30 am at a speed of 720 km/h to K (60oN,50oW). At what local time is it expected at K to the nearest minute? (3 marks)

    20. a. In a chemistry form 4 class in Jaribu high school 1 /3 of the class are girls and the rest are boys. 4 /5 of the boys and 9 /10 of the girls are right handed while the rest are left handed. The probability that a right handed student breaks a conical flask in any practical session is 3/10 and the corresponding probability for a left handed student is 4 /10.

    i. Represnt the above infomation on a tree diagram (2 marks)

    ii. Determine the probability that a student chosen at random from the class is left handed and does not break a conical flask in its simplest form (2 marks)

    iii. Determine the probability that the flask is broken in any practical session in simplest form (2 marks)

    b. The probability of Peter scoring grade A in his exam is 0.6 while the probability of Ali scoring the same grade is 0.7. Determine the probability that, i. Both will score grade A (1 mark)

    ii. None of them will score grade A (1 mark)

    iii. Only one of them will score grade A (1 mark)

    iv. At least one of them will score grade A (1 mark)

    21. In the figfure below, O is the centre of the cricle. PQR is a tangent to the circle at Q. Angle PQS =28°, angle UTQ = 54°and UT = TQ

    Giving reasons, detrmine the size of a. Angle STQ (2 marks)

    b. Angle TQU (2 marks)

    c. Angle TQS (2 marks)

    d. Reflex angle UOQ (2 marks)

    e. Angle TQR (2 marks)

    22. a. Using a ruler and pair of compasses only, construct a triangle ABC such that AB = 8 cm and angle ABC = 75° and angle BCA = 45° . Let AB be on the line drawn below(3 marks)

    b. On the upper side of line AB, Locate the locus of p such that AP = PB and P is equidistant from AC and AB. (2 marks)

    c. Construct the locus of a point T such that angle ATB = 120° (2 marks)

    d. Construct a rectanbgle ABXY on the lower side of AB such that its area is 32 cm2 (2 marks) e. Shade the region R inside the rectangle suchthat XRY≥90° and angle ATB≥120° (1 mark)

    23. A farmer wishes to keep some chicks and ducks. Chicks cost Kshs. 60 each while ducks costs Kshs. 80 each.

    She cannot afford to spend more than Ksh 24,000. She finds it uneconomical to keep less than 250 birds. She also wishes to keep more chicks than ducks but chicks must be less than 200.

    a. Taking x and y to be the number of chicks and ducks resectively, write down all the inequalities that satisfy the above conditions (3 marks)

    b. Represent the inequalities graphically using a sclae of 1 cm represents 50 birds on both axis (4 marks)

    c. If the farmer sells a mature chick at Kshs. 200 and a duck at Kshs 250, find the number of chicks and ducks she must keep in order to maximize her revenue. State the maximum revenue (3 marks)

    24. The diagram below shows a line PQ and the curve y = 2x − x2

    intesrecting at point P and Q

    a. Find the coordinates of P and Q

    b. Calculate the area of the shaded region

    English Paper 1 - 2019 K.C.S.E Prediction Set 1

    101/1 English

    Paper One

    Time: 2hrs

    Instructions to Candidates

    1. Write your details in the spaces provided above.

    2. Answer all the questions in this paper.

    3. Answer the questions in English

    1. Functional Writing

    Students in your school have raised concerns about poor hygiene in the school.

    In a bid to address these concerns, the principal appoints a four member committee to investigate the health situation and give recommendations.

    You are the secretary of the committee, write down the report you will present to your principal. (20mks)

    2. Cloze Test (10mks)

    Fill in the blank spaces with the most appropriate words.

    A new research title “Underage drinking in Kenya”, has .....................1...................that nearly one third of form four students aged below 18 years take alcohol .....................2................... As our society ponders this sad ..................3............................., the urgent message to children who are taking alcohol ..............................4................ do not drink another sip. Advice to those children is to strongly say “no”. ..................5.....................irresponsible behaviour, to alcoholism, there are many..................6..................effects of alcohol. It is wrong and illegal for children to drink alcohol. This report also states that 46 percent of the children received ..................7................first pint from friends and .....................8...................... Do you offer alcohol to a child? As a parent or guardian, do you nurture .....................9................? How much time do you spend with them? Notably, ...........................10...............of guidance and supervision are stimuli to underage drinking.

    3. Oral Skills (30mks) Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow

    Make me a grave where’er you will, In a lowly plain, or a lofty hill; Make it among earth’s humblest graves, But not in a land where men are slaves.

    I could not rest if around my grave I heard the steps of a trembling slave; His shadow above my silent tomb Would make it a place of fearful gloom I could not rest if I heard the tread

    Of a coffle going to the shambles led, And the mother’s shriek of wild despair Rise like a curse on the trembling air (by Frances Ellen Watkins Harper)

    Questions

    a. Describe the rhyme scheme of the poem above. (2mks)

    b. Apart from rhyme, mention two other ways they have achieved rhythm? (4mks)

    c. Mention two ways in which you would know that your audience is fully participating during the recitation of the poem above. (2mks)

    d. How would you say the last line of the poem? (2mks)

    e. Indicate whether the following items have a falling or a rising intonation. (4mks)

    i. Get out now!

    ii. The man was accused of theft.

    iii. How did you find the English exam?

    iv. Could he have left?

    f. Underline the silent letters in the following words. (4mks)

    i. Corps

    ii. Parliament

    iii. Leopard

    iv. Fracas

    g. Provide a homophone for each of the following words. (4mks)

    i. Bury

    ii. Claws

    iii. Guest

    iv. Male

    h. The underlining indicates the stressed word in the sentences below. Briefly explain what each sentence mean (3mks)

    i. The lady in a red dress lost her purse

    ii. The lady in a red dress lost her purses

    iii. The lady in a red dress lost her purse.

    i. Identify the odd word out according to the pronunciation of the underlined sound. (2mks)

    i. Said Head Gate Led

    ii. Face Phrase Shepherd Phase

    j. Below is a dialogue between Muthomi and James who are candidates. Read it and answer the questions that follow.

    Muthomi: James, I’m worried about my performance in English. It’s not encouraging.

    James: Ah! I’m happy with mine in Biology. I got an A in the last exam.

    Muthomi: I really don’t know what to do about English, maybe...

    James: I don’t like History and P.E teacher. He thinks he is the only one who can a pick-up truck. My mum told me she would be buying one soon.

    Muthomi: (Trying to bring him back to the topic) Tell me James, how do you revise English?

    James: Oh! Is that Betty? She promised to bring me a movie. (Calling out) Betty! Betty!

    (The runs after her)

    i. Identify the shortcomings in the dialogue above (3mks)

    English Paper 2 - 2019 K.C.S.EPrediction Set 1

    Instructions to Candidates

    1. Write your details in the spaces provided above.

    2. Answer all the questions in this paper.

    3. Answer the questions in English.

    1. Comprehension

    Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow The process of developing social skills among children at an early age is important. Researchers have cited rejection by peers as the greatest challenge children face in their quest to build meaningful social skills.

    It has been reported that children who get bullied and snubbed by peers are more likely to have problems in relating with others.

    In recent times, researchers have found at least three factors in a child’s behaviour that can lead to social rejection. The factors involve a child’s inability to pick up on and respond to nonverbal cues from their pals. In the United states 10 to 13 percent of school-going children experience some form of rejection by their peers.

    In addition to causing mental health problems, bullying and social isolation can increase the likelihood of a child getting poor grades, dropping out of school,, or developing substance abuse problems.

    It is reported that the social skills that children gain on the playground or elsewhere could show up later in life, according to Richard Lavoie, an expert in child social behaviour.

    He says that children experiment with the relationship styles they will have as adults during unstructured playtime-when children interact without the guidance of an authority figure. Researchers say that the number- one need of any human is to be liked by other humans.

    However, researchers have expressed concern that our children are like strangers in their own land. They don’t understand the basic rules of social behaviour and their mistakes are usually unintentional. Children who face rejection may have problems in at least one of three different areas of nonverbal communication, which is the reason they are rejected.

    These are reading nonverbal cues; understanding their social meaning; and coming up with options for resolving a social conflict.

    A child, for example, simply my not notice a person’s scowl of impatience or understand what a tapped foot means. In another situation, a child may have trouble reconciling the desires of a friend with her own.

    Anyone trying to help children on their social skills should try to pinpoint the weaknesses a child has and then build those up. When children have prolonged struggles with socializing, “a vicious cycle begins,” children who are shunned by others have few opportunities to practice social skills whereas popular children have more than enough opportunities to perfect theirs. However, having just one or two friends can be enough to give a child the social practice he or she need.

    Parents, teachers and other adults in a child’s life can help, too. Instead of reacting with anger or embarrassment to a child who, say, asks Aunt Vera if her new hairdo was a mistake, parents should teach social skills with the same tone they use for teaching numeracy skills or proper hygiene.If presented as a learning opportunity, rather than a punishment, children usually appreciate the lesson. It is important to note that most children are so desperate to have friends that they just jump on board.

    To teach social skills, Lavoie advises a five-step approach in his book. The process works for children with or without learning disabilities and is best conducted immediately after a wrongdoing has been made.

    First, ask the child what happened and listen without judgment. Second, ask the child to identify their mistake. Often children only know that someone got upset, but don’t understand their own role in the outcome. Third, help the child identify the cue they missed or mistake they made, by asking something like: “How would you feel if Emma was hogging the tyre swing?” Instead of lecturing with the word “should,” offer options the child “could” have taken in the moment, such as “You could have asked Emma to join you or told her you would give her the swing after your turn.

    “Fourth, you can create an imaginary but similar scenario where the child can make the right choice. For example, you could say, “If you were playing with a shovel in the sand box and Aiden wanted to use it, what would you do?” Lastly, give the child” social homework” by asking him to practice this new skill, saying: “Now that you know the importance of sharing, I want to hear about something you share tomorrow.”

    (Adapted from livescience.com-Tue Feb 2, 2010)

    Questions

    a. In one sentence, explain what this passage is talking about? (2mks)

    b. What is the number one need of any human being? (1mk)

    c. What are cited as the causes for social rejection according to the passage (2mks)

    d. What is social rejection likely to lead to (2mks)

    e. What vicious cycle is referred to in this passage (2mks)

    f. How can a parent make children appreciate the lesson on social skills? (2mks)

    g. “How would you feel if Emma was hogging the tyre swing?” Re-write in reported speech. (1mk)

    h. Make notes on the five-step approach to teach children social skills (5mks)

    i. Explain the meanings of the following words and phrases as used in the passage (3mks)

    i. Authority figure

    ii. Shunned

    iii. Jump on board

    2. Read the excerpt below and answer the questions that follow (25mks)

    A Doll’s House: Krogstad: (Controlling himself) Listen to me, Mrs. Helmer. If necessary, I am prepared to fight for my small post in the Bank as if I were fighting for my life.

    Nora: So it seems Krogstad: It is not only for the sake of the money; indeed, that weighs least with me in the matter.

    There is another reason-well, I may we well tell you. My position is this. I daresay you know, like everybody else, that once, many years ago, I was guilty of an indiscretion.

    Nora: I think I have heard something of the kind.

    Krogstad: The matter never came into court; but every way seemed to be closed to me after that.

    So I took to the business that you know of. I had to do something; and, honestly, I don’t think I’ve been one of the worst. But now I must cut myself free from all that. My sons are growing up; for their sake I must try and win back as much respect as I can in the town. This post in the Bank was like the first step up for me – and now your husband is going to kick me downstairs again into the mud.

    Nora: But you must believe me, Mr. Krogstad; it is not in my power to help you at all. Krogstad: Then it is because you haven’t the will; but I have means to compel you.

    Nora: You don’t mean that you will tell my husband that I owe you money?

    Krogstad: Hm! – suppose I were to tell him?

    Nora: I would be perfectly infamous of you. (Sobbing) To think of his learning my secret, which has been my joy and pride, in such an ugly, clumsy way – that he should learn it from you! And it would out me in a horribly disagreeable position- Krogstad: Only disagreeable?

    Nora: (Impetuously) well, do it, then! – and it will be the worse for you. My husband will see for himself what a blackguard you are, and you certainly won’t keep your post them.

    Krogstad: I asked you if it was only a disagreeable scene at home that you were afraid of?

    Nora: If my husband does get to know of it, of course he will at once pay you what is still owing, and we shall have nothing more to do with you.

    Krogstad: (Coming a step nearer)Listen to me, MrsHelmwe. Either you have a very bad memory or you know very little of business. I shall be obliged to remind you of a few details.

    Questions

    a. What happens just before this excerpt? (2mks)

    b. Identify and illustrate any two themes evident in the excerpt. (4mks)

    c. Using about fifty words, summarise why Krogstad is prepared to fight for the small post in the bank (5mks)

    d. Identify and illustrate any two character traits of; (4mks)

    i. Krogstad

    ii. Nora

    e. Identify and illustrate any two stylistic devices used in the excerpt. (4mks)

    f. Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the extract (2mks)

    i. Compel

    ii. Blackguard

    g. “I shall be obliged to remind you of a few details”. Which are those details? (4mks)

    3. Read the following narrative then answer the questions that follow (20mks)

    Once upon a time Hare and Hyena were very good friends. They visited each other every day and herded their cows together.

    There came a time when the cows started dying one after the other. The two friends wanted to find out why the cows were dying. Hare said, ‘Let us go and kill our mothers and take out their livers.

    We shall then cook and taste these livers. The bitter liver will show whose mother was making the cows die. At once Hyena went and killed his mother. He took out the liver and cooked it. Hare went and hid his mother in the garden in bushy banana plants. He then went and killed an antelope, took out its liver and cooked it.

    The two friends met to eat their livers. “My liver is very bitter”, said the Hyena. “Mine is very sweet,” said Hare, “So it was your mother who was making the cows die.” Hyena kept quiet and went home feeling sad. He moved from the old house to a smaller one because now he had no mother.

    Hare did the same After a short time, there was great famine in the land. The two friends decided that each of them was to look for food on alternate days sharing, on an equal basis what was available. When it was Hyena’s turn, he went and found only honeycombs without any honey. When Hyenabrought these, Hare refused this because he had secretly gone to his mother who had given him some bananas. This went on for many days, and Hyena grew thinner and thinner.

    Then he started wondering. “How does my friend remain fat and he doesn’t eat anything.

    I will find out.” One day he followed Hare. Hare went to his mother as usual. ‘Mother, mother, I have come’ and the mother dropped some bananas which Hare ate quickly.

    He then looked for some honeycombs and took them to the friend. “This is all I could find my friend.” The Hyena kept quiet. The next day he went to the banana plant and called. His voice however was very deep and no bananas were dropped for him.

    There was an old hyenawho was staying at the end of the forest and used to give advice to people.

    So Hare’s friend went to her and told her his problem. “Go and put your tongue on the path of black ants,” He was told, “Let them bite your tongue until it hurts. That’s how your voice will be soft.”

    Hyena went and did as he was told. When he went to Hare’s mother his voice was as soft as Hare’s. “Mother, mother I have come.” And Hare’s mother dropped bananas for his him.

    Then he told her to come and greet him. When she came down and saw it was Hyena she screamed but there was nobody near to help. Hyena killed her immediately.

    Hyena went and met Hare as usual saying nothing about Hare’s mother. The following day it was Hare’s. “Mother, mother I have come.’ And Hare’s mother dropped bananas for his him. Then he told her to come and greet him. When she came down and saw it was Hyena she screamed but there was nobody near to help. Hyena killed her immediately.

    Hyena went and met Hare as usual saying nothing about Hare’s mother. The following day it was Hare’s turn. He went to his usual place. “Mother” he called again. He climbed up. There was nobody. Having seen some blood on the ground, Hare knew what had happened to his mother. When Hare got back to Hyena’s house, he said nothing.

    At night, Hare took all cows including Hyena’s and went away to live in another part of the country. That ended the Hare and Hyena’s friendship. And that is the end of my story to you.

    Questions

    a. With illustrations, classify the above narrative (2mks)

    b. Identify three features of narratives (3mks)

    c. Identify three features in this story that are characteristics of oral narratives (3mks)

    d. Briefly explain the character traits of the following (4mks)

    i. Hare

    ii. Hyena

    e. What moral lesson do you learn from this story? (2mks)

    f. Identify two socio-economic activities from the community in which the narrative is taken from. (2mks)

    g. You have been selected for a fieldwork research to collect the above item.

    i. Briefly explain two ways in which you would collect information on the item. (2mks)

    ii. Identify two challenges you might encounter during the field work and state how you would solve them. (2mks)

    h. Then he started wondering “How does my friend remain fat and he doesn’t eat anything. I will find out”. (Re-write into indirect speech) (1mk)

    i. Describe the irony in the fifth paragraph (2mks)

    4. Grammer (15mks)

    a. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given (3mks) i. He will not be given a driving license. He passes the road test (Rewrite as one using ‘unless’)

    ii. The woman left the child with a neighbor and went to the market. (Begin: leaving....)

    iii. The boys went to play in the field (underline the adverbial)

    b. Supply the correct preposition to complete the sentences given. (3mks)

    i. Property worth millions of shillings went up .........................flames.

    ii. The three boys shared the bread ...................................themselves.

    iii. We should strive to live .......................................our means.

    c. Use the correct form of the word in brackets to fill in the blank spaces in the sentences below. (3mks)

    i. The audience was offended by the .......................................(sense) of the speaker.

    ii. The ...............................................(acquire) of a university degree is a great milestone to a student.

    iii. Everyone should obey the law ....................................of their position in the society.

    d. Use the correct alternative to complete the sentences below (4mks)

    i. Teaching ..........................................(practice/practice) is not an easy job for teacher- trainees.

    ii. The prophet’s .....................................(prophesy/prophecy) was misleading to his audience.

    iii. He ...........................................((insured/ensured) his car with Madison.

    iv. Mwita ......................................(hanged/hung) the chart on the wall.

    e. Write the following sentences in indirect speech (1mk)

    “These are juicy mangoes,” Ken said.

    f. You do not require to cheat to pass (1mk) (Supply a suitable question tag).

    ENGLISH PAPER 3 - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    1. Write your details in the spaces provided above.

    2. Answer three questions only

    3. Questions one and two are compulsory

    4. In question three choose only one of the optional texts you have prepared on.

    5. Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional text, only the first one to appear will be marked.

    6. Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words.

    7. Candidates should check to ascertain that no questions are missing.

    1. Imaginative Composition (20mks)

    a. Write a composition ending with the following statement.Imaginative Composition (20mks) ......a final look at her made me realize that choices have consequences.

    OR

    Write a composition to illustrate the proverb, “once beaten twice shy”.

    2. Compulsory Text Blossoms of the Savannah H.R Ole Kulet (20MKS)

    Parenting should build an environment of trust and peace in a family. Write an essay that explores how this statement applies to the Ole Kaelo family in Blossoms of the Savannah.

    3. Optional Set Books

    a. Drama: David Mulwa: The Inheritance

    Inheriting a top seat without merit only invites ridicule from subjects. Write an essay showing how satire has been used in The Inheritance by David Mulwa.

    b. Short stories: Moran (ED) memories we lost.

    Discuss the major issues highlighted by the writer in the story window seat by Benjamin Branoff.

    c. John Steinbeck. The Pearl

    The Pearl potrays humans as beings inherently greedy. Show the validity of this statement with reference to The Pearl.

    Kiswahili Karatasi Ya 1 - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    1. Swali la lazima

    Nchini Kenya wanachi wamegawanyika katika misingi mbali mbali. Hali hii inatishia usalama na umoja wa kitaifa. Kama mtaalamu na katibu wa shirika lisilo la kiserikali la Kenya Moja, mwandikie rais barua ukipendekeza mikakati ya kuimarisha na kudumisha umoja wa kitaifa

    2. Utandawazi unaathari nyingi mbaya kuliko nzuri katika maisha yetu. Jadili

    3. Siku ya nyani kufa, miti yote huteleza

    4. Andika insha ikayamalizikia kwa

    Tokea siku hiyo, maisha yangu yakachukua mkondo mpya

    Kiswahili Karatasi Ya 2 - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    1. Ufahamu (Alama 15)

    Soma ufhamu kisha ujibu maswali

    Mojawapo ya masuala tata yanayokumba taifa letu la Kenya ni zimwi la ufisadi. Ufisadi huu umekuwa kizingiti kikubwa katika juhudi za serikali katika kuendeleza miradi ya maendeleo kwa raia wake. Kulingana na utafiti uliofanywa na shirika la Transparency International, Kenya imeorodheshwa miongoni mwa mataifa fisadi duniani. Utafiti huu umeleta mwamko mpya kwa serikali, upinzani pamoja na mashirika mengi ya humu nchini na ya kimataifa kupiga darubini suala hili.

    Kwanza, suala la ubepari limeelekezewa lawama. Kuna baadhi ya watu ambao wanatamani kumiliki ulimwengu mzima, wana utashi wa kupokea mali kwa njia yoyote. Watu kama hawa ndio wameweka vikwazo na kulazimisha wenzao kutoa kadhongo ili wahudumiwe. Aidha, wafanyakazi wa serikali wasipolipwa vyema wanaweza kuitikia mpango wa ufisadi ili waeze kujipatia riziki.

    Sababu hhi ndio inawafanya baadhi ya polisi kushirikiana na wahalifu. Badala ya kutarajia pingu za polisi, wanatarajia pambaja baada ya kula mlungula.

    Ukosefu wa kazi nchini pia umechangia pakubwa kukuza ufisadi. Vijana barobaro wanazurura ovyo ovyo huku wakitafuta kazi lakini hawapati kazi wala bazi. Ili wapate kazi wanalazimika kutoa kadhongo ndipo waajiriwe. Ufisadi una madhara chungu nzima. Mojawapo wa madhara haya ni kuzorota kwa usalama nchini. Wahalifu humiliki silaha kinyume cha sheria. Silaha hizi hutumiwa kupora mali na kutekeleza mauaji. Tatizo hili limepiga dhoruba kali uchumi kwani wawekezaji wa kigeni wamesita kuwekeza humu nchini.

    Eneo jingine ambapo ufisadi hutekelezwa ni katika ukwepaji ushuru. Ni bayana kwamba kulipa ushuru ni kujitegemea. Serikali hupata hela muhimu za kugharamia huduma kwa wananchi kupitia ulipaji wa ushuru.

    Basi ikiwa hela hizi zitapotea kupitia ukwepaji wa ushuru, serikali haitakuwa katika nafasi ya kutoa huduma kwa wananchi. Huduma hizi ni kama vile afya, nguvu za umeme, usalama, ujenzi wa barabara na miuondomsingi mingine miongoni mwa huduma nyingine. Aidha, serikali hushindwa kulipa mishahara ya wafanayikazi wake.

    Ufisadi bila shaka umekuwa kidondandugu katika harakati za kuimarisha uchumi. Serikali inafaa kushutumiwa kwa kutovalia njuga suala hili ambalo linaendelea kuota mizizi kila uchao.

    Wanachi hawana budi kushirikiana na taasisi za kukabiliana na ufisadi ili kulizika janga hili katika kaburi la sahau.

    Maswali

    a. Taja kichwa mwafaka cha makala haya (alama 2)

    b. Eleza kiini cha zimwi linalozungumziwa katika makala haya (alama 4)

    c. Thinitisha kwamba ufisadi ni "kidondandugu" (alama 4)

    d. Eleza namna uchumi umelamazwa kwakuwepo kwa ufisadi (alam 2)

    e. Toa maana ya

    i. Utashi

    ii. Kadhongo

    iii. Kutovalia njuga

    2. Ufupisho (Alama 15)

    Soma makala yafuatayo kisha ujibu maswali

    Wataalamu wa maswala ya kielimu wanadai kuwa huenda nchi hii ikalaumiwa kwa kuendeleza mfumo wa elimu unaozingatia maslahi ya wakwasi na kuwapuuza wachochole.

    Mfumo huu wa elimu umezua mfumo mwingine wa kijamii ambapo watoto wa wenye hadhi wanaapata eleimu bora kuliko watoto wa maskini.

    Pengo baina ya haya matabaka linzaidi kupanuka kama ardhi na mbingu Watoto kutoka jamii hohehahe wanasomea katika shule za umma zisizo na lolote wala chochote na watoto wa kifahari wanasomea katika shule za kibinafsi zilizo na vifaa mufti na mazingira faafu.

    Mfumo wa jinsi hii ni kuitia jamii kitanzi kwa sababu ya kuzuka kwa matabaka yanayohasimiana Katika nchi ambapo asilimia sitini ya watu inaishi katika hali ambayo ni chini ya dola moja kila siku, watoto wengi huenda shuleni bila kula chochote na hushinda hivyo kutwa nzima na wasing'amue chochote darasani.

    Walimu wao nao hawana ilhamu au kariha ya kufanya kazi kwa sabau mazingira ya kikazi ni mabovu na huenda shuleni shingo upande kama wakulima bila pembejeo.

    Madarasa yao ni mabanda na wengine husomea chini ya miti ambayo inaweza kukatwa wakati wowote na wachoma makaa waliokosana na mazingira.

    Unapowatazama watoto hawa, kile kinachoitwa sare ya shule kinakirihisha na kuyaudhi macho. Ni matambara yaliyosheheni viraka vya kila aina katika mseto wa ufakiri.

    Hawa ni wenzetu eti!

    Tatizo hili limekuwa nyeti hasa kutokana na utandawazi wa mfumo wa soko huru ambao unaruhusu shule za kibinafsi kuendeshwa kama mashirika ya kibiashara.

    Karo inayolipwa katika shule hizi ni ya kibiashara, majengo na vifaa ni vya kibishiara, walimu ni wa kibiashara, ilmuradi kila jambo lalenga maslahi ya kibiashara ya walala hoi. Hapo ndipo chimbuko la makabila mawili maarufu nchini yaani matajiri walamba vidole na maskini wanaostakimu madongo-kuinama Uchunguzi umethibitisha kwamba zaidi ya asilimia sitini ya wanafunzi wanaojiunga na shule za kitaifa hutoka katika shule za kibinafsi zinazomilikiwa na matajtri.

    Mbinu ya wizara ya Elimu ya kugawa nafasi kwa njia ya haki katika shule za kitaifa haijafua dafu kwa sababu matajiri wajanja huwasajili watoto wao kufanyia mitihani katika shule zisizokuwa na ushindani mkubwa zilizomo mashambani.

    Kwa kufanya hivyo, watoto wa maskini huwa wamefungiwa njia kotekote na kuporwa haki yao. Ama kwa kweli, mwenye nguvu mpishe kwani dau la mnyonge haliendi joshi.

    Wanafunzi katika shule za binafsi hufunzwa katika makundi madogo amabyo humwezesha mwalimu kushughulikia mahitaji ya kibinafisi ya kila mtoto. Wazazi wao pia huwaajiri walimu wakati wa mapumziko ili kugongomeza au kushadidia mada ambazo hawakuzielewa vizuri shuleni.

    Upeo wa lugha wa watoto hawa hauwezi kulinganishwa na wa wenzao kwa sababu shule zao zina maktaba za kisasa, vifaa vya kisasa na vitu meme na hufunzwa teknolojia za kileo kuhsuu mawasiliano. Watoto hawa huandaliwa ziara za kieleimu ili kutanua uelewa wao wa mambo na vile vile hualikiwa watu wanoasifika katika jamii kuwahutubia shuleni mwao kuhusu mada mbalimbali. Wawasilishaji hawa huwa ni kielelezo tosha kwa watoto hawa. Mzazi aliyesoma hujua umuhimu wa elimu na hivyo basi huandaa mikakati mahsusi ili kumfaulisha mwanawe kinyume na wazazi wakata.

    Ni bayana kuwa iwapo hivi ndivyo mambo yalivyo basi hata vyuo vikuu vitakuwa himaya ya watoto wa matajiri huku watoto wa kimaskini wakisubiri kuajiriwa nao kama walinzi na matopasi.

    Sera za elimu nchini haziwezi fanikiwa pale ambapo rasilimali muhimu zinatengewa watu wachache katika jamii. Watoto wa waunda sera hizi husomea katika shule ambazo hufuata mifumo ya kimataifa ambayo haina ukuruba na yetu hafifu. Katika majukwaa ya kisiasa utawasikia wakisifu mfumo ambao watoto wao wanaukwepa kama ukoma. Imekuja kudhihirika kuwa wale wanaosemekana kuwa viongozi wa kesho ni wale ambao sasa hivi wansomea katika hizo akademia na kufuatilia mifumo ya kigeni au akademia zinazofuata mfumo wetu katika mazingira teule. Swali ni hili, kesho ya mtoto wa kimaskini ni ipi?

    Inahitajika mikakati ya kimakusudi ili kulitanzua swala hili kabla ya milipuko ya kijamii kama vile ujambazi, uuaji, ubakaji, uraibu wa mihadarati na kadhalika kutokea. Ipo lazima ya kujenga shule vielelezo katika kila gatuzi ambazo zitafadhiliwa na serikali kwa kupewa mahitaji yote muhimu na lazima mpango wa lishe bora kuanzishwa katika shule za umma ili kukidhi matilaba ya watoto wote. Udahili wa wanfunzi katika shule za kiatifa na katika vyuo vikuu ni sharti uvalishwe vazi la utu na uzalendo bila ubaguzi. Shule za umma ziwe na walimu na madarasa ya kutosha ili kuondoa matatizo yaliyoibuka kutokana na kuanzishwa kwa mpango wa elimu bila malipo katika shule za msingi. Sera kuhusu shule za chekechea lazima izinduliwe kitaifa ili kusawazisha msingi wa kila

    mtoto kielemu. Walimu wa shule hizi za malezi lazima wawe na maadnalizi sawa yatakayowawezesha kusawazisha viwango kitaalamu. Mitaala yetu ilenge kuzalisha binadamu ambaye atajinufaisha yeye binafsi na taifa kwa jumla.

    Maswali

    a. Ni mabo yapi muhimu yanayojitokeza katika aya ya tatu hadi ya saba (maneno 80-85) (alama 8, 1 utiririko)

    Matayarisho......................................................... ............................................................................

    Jibu...................................................................... ............................................................................

    b. Ni mapendekezo yapi yanayotolewa katika aya ya mwisho (maneno 55-65) Alama 7, 1 ya utiririko)

    Matayarisho......................................................... ............................................................................

    Jibu...................................................................... ............................................................................

    3. Matumizi Ya Lugha (Alama 40)

    a. Kanusha sentensi ifuatayo:

    Nyumba yake ina milango na mapambo mengi (alam 2)

    b. Eleza maana nne za sentensi ifuatayo (alama 2)

    Alinunuliwa ng'ombe na mtoto wake

    c. Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa kutumia mishale (alama 4)

    Wanafunzi wasiofuata maagizo watapata alama ambazo zitawaudhi d. Eleza maana ya semi zifuatazo

    i. Ana mkono wa msiba (alama 1)

    ii. Pele hupewa msi kucha (alama 1)

    e. i. Eleza maana ya kirai (alama 1)

    ii. Tambulisha aina za virai vilivyopigiwa mstari katika sentensi ifuatayo (alama 1)

    Wale wasichana watundu walijificha chini ya dawati mwalimu alipowaita

    f. Taja aina moja ya sentensi kidhamira na kuitolea mfano mwafaka (alama 1)

    g. Andika kifungu kifuatacho katika usemi halisi (alama 4)

    Wanafunzi waliambiwa na mwalimu wao kuwa watakaporudi nyumbani waoge, wale halafu waanze kusoma moja kwa moja badala ya kupoteza wakati wao kutazama vipindi vya runinga. Aliwasisitizia kuwa waliokuwa wakifanya maonyesho kwenye runinga walikuwa tayari wamefuzu vyuoni na kuajiriwa kazi

    h. Andika sentensi ifuatyo katika udogo umoja (alama 2)

    Tulipoyaona yalikuwa yakisoma majitabu

    i. Tunga sentensi moja kuonyesha matumizi mawili ya kiambishi -KI- (alama 1)

    j. Eleza matumizi ya kiambishi -KU- katika sentensi ifuatayo: (alama 2)

    Kucheza huku kulitufurahisha ingawa mgeni hakufurahi

    k. Iandike upya sentensi hii kwa kugeuza shamirisho kitondo kuwa kiima (alama 2)

    Tunamwandalia mgeni chakula sasa hivi

    l. Tunga sentensi mbili ili kubainisha matumizi ya alama ya mshazari (alama 2)

    m. i. Eleza maana ya mofimu (alama 1)

    ii. Bainisha mofimu -li- katika utungo huu (alama 2)

    Alikimbilia shamba

    n. i. Eleza maana ya shadda (alama 1)

    ii. Tia shadda katika neno hili kutoa maana mbili tofauti (alama 2)

    Katakata

    o. Tofautisha maneno haya kwa kutumia sentensi moja (alama 2)

    i. Vuka

    ii. Fuka

    p. Tumia neno shirika kama nomino na kama kielezi katika sentensi moja (alama 2)

    q. Unda nomino moja dhahania kutokana na kitenzi -cha (alama 1)

    r. Eleza sifa bainifu zozote mbili za sauti /ch/ (alama 1)

    4. Isimu Jamii (Alama 10)

    a. Eleza/bainisha ithibati kuwa kiswahili ni lugha ya kibantu (alama 4)

    b. Tofautisha istilahi zifuatazo katika Isimu Jamii

    i. Uwili lugha na ujozi lugha

    ii. Lafudhi na lahaja

    iii. Sajili na msimbo

    Kiswahili Karatasi Ya 3 - 2019 K.c.se Prediction Set 1

    Maagizo

    Jibu maswali manne.

    Swali la kwanza ni la lazima

    Chagua maswali mengine matatu kutoka kwa sehemu zilizosalia:

    Riwaya, Tamthilia, Hadithi fupi na Ushairi.

    Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.

    Sehemu Ya A

    1. Swali La Lazima

    a. i. Semi nini? (alama 1)

    ii. Fafanua sifa nne za misimu (alama 4)

    b. Soma wimbo ufuatao kisha ujibu maswali Ewe kilizi

    Ulozowea kujificha

    Nyuma ya mama kujikinga, dhidi ya milio

    Yanadi ilo juu mbinguni

    Jua kesho ni siku ya siku

    Siku ya kujua mbivu na mbichi

    Kutofautisha jogoo na vipora

    Na riba takaposhika, chake kisu

    Ndipo utakapojua bayana

    Ukoo wetu si wa kunguru

    ikiwa hutayari

    kisu kukidhihaki

    sithubutu kamwe, wanjani kuingia

    sije kuniaibisha miye, amiyo na akraba nzima!

    Maswali

    i. Huu wimbo huitwaje? (alama 1)

    ii. Eleza majukumu yoyote manne yanayotekelezwa na wimbo huu katika jamii (alama 4)

    c. i. Mivigha ni nini? (alama 2)

    ii. Eleza sifa tatu za mivigha (alama 3)

    d. Fafanua matatizo matano ambayo yanaikumba fasihi simulizi duniani (alama 5)

    Sehemu Ya B

    Riwara: Chozi La Heri: Asumpta Matei

    2. “...haifai kucheza na uwezo wavijana, wao ni kama nanga. Huwezi kuzamisha na kuiongea merikebu.” a. Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili (alama 4)

    b. Bainisha tamathali mbili za usemi zilizotumika katika dondoo (alama 4)

    c. Kwa kurejelea riwaya hii, onyesha jinsi vijana wamezamisha merikebu ya wahafidhina. (alama 12)

    3. Baada ya dhiki faraja. Onyesha vile ukweli wa methali hii unavyodhihirika kwenye riwaya. (alama 20)

    Sehemu Ya C

    Tamthilia: Kigogo: Pauline Kea

    4. “Sitaki kuaibishwa na mwanamke mimi, siwezi.”

    a. Yaweke maneno haya katika muktadha wake. (alama 4)

    b. Fafanua kwa hoja nane kuwa msemaji wa maneno haya anafaa kuaibishwa (alama 16)

    5. a. Jadili jinsi kumi ambazo kwazo maudhui ya ukatili yanajitokeza katika tamthilia ya Kigogo (alama 10)

    b. Eleza mifano mitano ya matumizi ya kinaya katika tamthilia ya Kigogo (alama 10)

    Sehemu Ya D : Hadithi Fupi Tumbo Lisiloshiba Na Hadithi Nyingine

    6. Eleza nafasi ya vijana katika jamii ukirejelea hadithi fupi zifuatazo.

    a. Mapenzi ya kifaurongo (alama 5)

    b. Shogake Dada ana ndevu (alama 5)

    c. Mame Bakari (alama 10)

    7. Ndoto ya mashaka: Ali Abdalla Ali

    “Sasa nimechoka mja. Nimechoka hata naradua kufa kuliko kuishi. Hadi lini haya mashaka ya kutengenezwa? Mashaka ya mashaka!

    a. Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili (alama 4)

    b. Tambua mbinu mbili za lugha zilizotumika (alama 4)

    c. Fafanua mambo sita yanayomfanya mrejelewa aradue kufa. (alama 12)

    Sehemu Ya E: Ushairi

    8. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali

    Barabaraba do ni ndefu

    Nami tayari nimecho katiki

    Natama ni kuketi

    Ni’nyooshe misuli

    Nitulize akili

    Lakini

    Azma ya nisukuma

    Mbele ikinihimiza kuendelea

    Baada ya miinuko na kuruba

    Sasa naona unyoofu wake

    Unyoofu ambao unatisha zaidi

    Punde natumbukia katika shimo

    Nahitaji siha zaidi ili kupanda tena

    Ghafla nakumbuka ilivyosema

    Ile sauti zamani kidogo

    “Kuwa tayari kupanda na kushuka”.

    Ingawa nimechoka

    Jambo moja dhahiri

    Lazima hufuate barabara

    Ingawa machweo yaingia

    Nizame na kuibuka

    Nipandenakushuka

    Jambo moja na kumbuka; Mungu

    Je nimwombe tena? Hadi lini?

    Labda amechoshwa na ombaomba zangu

    Nashangaa tena!

    Kitu kimoja na kiamini

    Lazima niendelee kujitahidi kwa kila hatua mpya

    Nijikokote kuiandama hii barabara yenye ukungu

    Nikinaswa na kujinasua

    Yumkini nitafika mwisho wake

    Ikiwa wangu mwisho haitauwahi kabla.

    Maswali

    a. Taja naueleze aina ya shairi hili (alama 2)

    b. Eleza toni ya shairi hili (alama 2)

    c. Huku ukitoa mifano mwafaka eleza tamathali tatu za usemi ambazo zinajitokeza katika shairi (alama 3)

    d. Mshairi ametumia uhuru wake wa utunzi. Eleza mifano mitatu huku ukitolea mifano. (alama 3)

    e. Fafanua dhamira ya mtunzi wa shairi hili (alama 2)

    f. Andika kifungu cha mwisho katika lugha ya nathari. (alama 4)

    g. Eleza maana ya msamiati ufuatao kama ulivyotumika katika shairi (alama 4)

    i. Kuruba

    ii. Siha

    iii. Machweo

    iv. Kujinasua

    Chemistry Paper 1 - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    1. The set up below can be used to prepare oxygen gas. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

    a. Identify X ( 1mk)

    b. What property of oxygen makes it possible for it to be collected a shown in the above set up. ( 1 mk)

    c. State two uses of oxygen . ( 1mk)

    2. Write an equation to show the effect of heat on each of the following

    a. Silver nitrate ( 1mk)

    b. An hydrous iron (ii) sulphate ( 1mk)

    c. Sodium hydrogen carbonate .( 1mk)

    3. i. What name is given to the process by which alcohol is formed from a carbohydrate.?. (1mk)

    ii. Explain why the solubility of ethane in water is lower than that of ethanol. ( 2mks)

    4.i. Complete the nuclear equation below (1mk)

    ii. The half – life of is 8 days

    Determine the half life of if 50 grammes decayed for 40 days. ( 1mk)

    iii. Give one agricultural use of radio isotope. ( 1mK)

    5. Charcoal is a fuel that is commonly used for cooking. When it burns it forms two oxides a. Name the two oxides . (2mks)

    b. State one use of any of the two oxides . (1mk)

    6. An element X has a relative atomic mass of 88. When a current of 0.5 amperes was passed through a fused chloride of X for 32 minutes, 10 seconds; 0.44g of X was deposited. i. Determine the charge of element X (1 Faraday = 96,500c) . ( 2mks)

    ii. Write the formula of hydroxide of X. ( 1mk)

    7. Study the following flow chart and answer the questions that follow:

    a. Write the formula of

    i. Alcohol R (1mk)

    ii. Compound S (1mk)

    b. Name process T ( 1mK)

    8. 60cm³ of oxygen gas diffuses through a porous plug in 50 seconds. How long will it take 80cm³ of sulphur ( iv) oxide to diffuse through the same plug under the same conditions. (S = 32 O = 16 ) ( 3mks)

    9. Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that follow.

    Salt Solubility g/100g water
    At 50o C At 80oc
    G 43 58
    Y 82 138
    A mixture containing 40g salt G and 120g salt Y in 100g of water at 80o was cooled to 50o i. Which salt crystallized out?. Give a reason (2mks)

    ii. Calculate the mass of the salt that crystallized out. (1mk)

    10. a. State two conditions necessary for rusting to occur.(1mk)

    b. State the two reasons why tin coating is used in food cans. (2mks)

    11. A form one student was supplied with a colourless liquid which was suspected to be water. i. Describe one chemical test that could be carried out to show that the liquid is water.(2mks)

    ii. How could it have been shown that one liquid was pure water (1mk)

    12. During extraction of copper, the ore is first concentrated and roasted to produce copper (I) Sulphide. i. Name the ore from which copper is commonly extracted. (1mk)

    ii. Write an equation for the reaction in which copper (I) sulphide is produced by roasting the ore in air .(1mk)

    iii. Give one effect that the process in (ii) above could have on the environment. ( 1mk)

    iv. Give one use of copper metals (1mk)

    13. a. Name two cations that are present in hard water. (1mk)

    b. Explain how the ion exchange resin softened had water.(2mks)

    14. Below is a representation of an electrochemical cell. Pb (s)/ Pb 2+

    (aq) // Ag+

    (aq) / Ag(s)

    a. What does / / represent ? ( 1mk)

    b. Given the following: EƟ (V)

    Pb2+(aq) + 2e → Pb(s) - 0.13

    Ag+(aq) + e → Ag (s) + 0.80

    Calculate the e.m.f of the electrochemical cell. (2mks)

    15. Distingush between ionization energy and electron affinity of an element (1mk)

    16. Calculate the percentage by mass of copper in copper (ii) carbonate salt. ( Cu = 64, C= 12, 0 = 16 ) ( 3mks)

    17. What name is given to elements which appear in group (II) of the periodic table? ( 1mk)

    18. Explain why the following substances conduct an electric current a. Magnesium metal ( 1mk)

    b. Molten magnesium chloride ( 1 mk)

    19. The chromatography below was obtained from a contaminated food sample P. Contaminants Q, R, S and T are suspected to be in P. Use it to answer the following questions.

    i. Name line labelled X. ( 1mk)

    ii. Identify the contaminants in mixture P.( 1mk)

    iii. Which is the most soluble contaminant in P. ( 1mk)

    20. a. Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon. What is meant by an allotrope? (1 mk)

    b. Explain why graphite can be used as a lubricant while diamond cannot. (2mks)

    21. Where 15cm³ of a gaseous hydrocarbon,p, was burnt in 100 cm³ of oxygen, the resulting gaseous mixture occupied 70cm³ at room temperature and pressure. When the gaseous mixture was passed through potassium hydroxide solution, its volume decreased to 25cm³

    a. What volume of oxygen was used during the reaction?. (1mk)

    b. Determine the molecular formular of the hydrocarbon. (2mks)

    22. In terms of structure and bonding, explain the following observations: a. The melting point of aluminium is higher than that of sodium. (1⁄2 mks)

    b. Melting point of chlorine is lower than that of sulphur. (11⁄2 mks)

    23. The set up below was used to investigate the reaction between dry hydrogen gas and copper (II) oxide.

    i. Name substance A. ( 1mk)

    ii. State the observation made in the combustion tube. (1mk)

    iii. Explain the observations made in (ii) above. (1 mk)

    24. Hydrogen chloride gas can be prepared by reacting sodium chloride with an acid. a. Write an equation for the reaction between sodium chloride and the acid. ( 1mk)

    b. Give two chemical properties of hydrogen chloride gas (1mk)

    c. State two uses of hydrogen chloride gas. (1mk)

    25. State and explain what would happen if a dry red litmus paper was dropped in a gas jar of dry chlorine. (2mks)

    26. By using aqueous sodium chloride describe how a student can distinguish calcium ions from lead ions. (2mks)

    27. Given the following substances: wood ash lemon juice and sodium chloride a. Name one commercial indicator that can be used to show whether wood, lemon juice and sodium chloride are acidic, basic or neutral. (1mk)

    b. Classify the substances in 27(a) above as acids, bases or neutral.(2mks)

    28.A solution was made by dissolving 8.2g of calcium nitrate to give 2 litres of solution. Determine the concentration of nitrate ions in moles per litre. (3mks)

    Chemistry Paper 2 - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    1. a. Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that follow.

    (The letters do not represent the actual symbol of the substances).

    Substance Density at room
    temperature
    g/cm³
    Solubility in
    water
    Boiling point (°C) Melting point(°C)
    U       0.8 Very soluble        78.5          -117
    V 0.77 × 10-³ Very soluble         -33          -78
    W        1.6 Insoluble          77           -23
    X 1.33 × 10-³ Slightly soluble          -183           -219
    Substance Density at room temperature g/cm3 Solubility in water Boiling point (oC) Melting point(oC) U 0.8 Very soluble 78.5 -117 V 0.77 × 10-3 Very soluble -33 -78 W 1.6 Insoluble 77 -23 X 1.33 × 10-3 Slightly soluble -183 -219 i. Select the letter that represents a substance that is a gas at room temperature and which can be collected:

    I. Over water. Explain. {2 marks}

    II. By downward displacement of air. (Density of air is 1.29 x 10-3 g/cm3 at room temperature). {1 mark}

    ii. Which substance would dissolve in water and could be separated from the solution by fractional distillation? Explain. {2 marks}

    iii. Which substance is a liquid at room temperature and when mixed with water two layers would be formed? {1 mark}

    b. The grid below shows part of a periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

    (The letters do not represent the actual symbols of the elements)

    i. Name the Group to which element I and Q belong. {1 mark}

    ii. Which letter represents the element that is least reactive? {1 mark}

    iii. Name the type of bond that is formed between element H and L when they react. Explain. {2 marks}

    iv. Write the chemical formula of the compound formed when element J and Oxygen gas react. {1 mark}

    v. On the grid, indicate with a tick (√) the position of element R, which forms R3- ions and is in the third period of the Periodic Table. {1 mark}

    2.a. A form four student investigated a property of acids C and E by reacting equal volumes of 1 M sodium hydroxide solution with equal volumes of acid C and E of the same concentration. The results obtained were recorded in the table below.

    Acid C E
    Rise in temperature (Δt)k 4 2
    i. Select the letter that represent a weak acid. Explain. {2 marks}

    ii. Write a chemical equation for the reaction between Sodium hydroxide solution and aqueous ethanoic acid. {1 mark}

    b. i. What is molar heat of vaporization? {1 mark}

    ii. The formation of Hydrogen peroxide under standard conditions is represented by the following thermochemical equations:

    H2(g) + O2(g) → H202(g) ΔHθ f

    = -133 kJ/mol

    H2(g) + O2(g) → H202(l) ΔHθ f

    = -188 kJ/mol

    Draw an energy cycle diagram that links the above two thermochemical equations. {3 marks}

    iii. Calculate the molar heat of vaporiz

    ation of hydrogen peroxide. {1 mark}

    iv. Write the thermochemical equation for the molar heat of vaporization of Hydrogen peroxide. {1 mark}

    c. i. What is a fuel? {1 mark}

    ii. Natural gas, coal and oil are known as fossil fuels. They are major sources of energy. Hydrogen gas is also a source of energy.

    I. State and explain two reasons why Hydrogen is a very attractive fuel compared to fossils. {2 marks}

    II. State one disadvantage of using Hydrogen fuel instead of fossil fuels.{1 mark}

    3. The flow chart below is a simplified version of the steps in the manufacture of Sodium carbonate.

    a. Name the process illustrated by the flow chart above. {1 mark}

    b. Name three main raw materials of the above process. {3 marks}

    c. Name substance M. {1 mark}

    d. Name the process taking place in step II. {1 mark}

    e. Identify by-product Y and write a balanced chemical equation to show how it is formed. {2 marks}

    f. 98.123 Kg of Sodium hydrogen carbonate was manufactured in this process. i. What is solid Z. {1 mark}

    ii. Write a chemical equation for the formation of solid Z. {1 mark}

    iii. Determine in Kilograms, how much of solid Z was produced in this process. (Na = 23, H = 1, 0 = 16, C = 12) {3 marks}

    4.a. Study the standard reduction potentials for elements R, T, U, V and W given below and answer the questions that follow. (The letters are not the actual symbols of the elements).

    i. What is the E0 value of the strongest reducing agent? {1 mark}

    ii. Which element is likely to be Hydrogen? Give a reason for your answer. {2 marks}

    iii. Draw in the space provided below, a labelled diagram of the electrochemical cell that would be obtained when half-cells of elements T and V are combined. {3 marks}

    iv. On the diagram (iii) above:

    I. draw an arrow showing direction of flow of electrons. {1 mark}

    II. Label by naming the anode and cathode of the electrochemical cell.{1 mark}

    v. Determine the E0 value of the electrochemical cell constructed in (iii) above.{2 marks}

    b. 1.48 g of Copper metal were deposited when current was passed through aqueous Copper (II) Sulphate for 2 hours 30 minutes during purification of Copper in electrolysis. Determine the amount of current used. (Cu= 63.5, IF= 96500 C) {3 marks}

    5.a. The following scheme represents various reactions starting with pro-1-ene. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

    i. Write the chemical name of Organic compound X. {1 mark}

    ii. Write the formula of organic compound Y. {1 mark}

    iii. State one reagent that can be used in: I. Step I {1 mark}

    II. Step II {1 mark}

    iv. Name compound V and state one of its use. {1 mark}

    v.I. Name gas Q. {1 mark}

    II. Write the equation of the reaction in step III {1 mark}

    III. Name organic compound Y. {1 mark}

    b. The structure shown below represents the monomer of natural rubber.

    Using two monomers of the above structure, show how the monomer polymerises. {1 mark}

    6. Below is a simplified diagram of a blast furnace used in the extraction of iron from its ores. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

    a. Name one other iron ore material that can be used in the blast furnace. {1 mark}

    b. The iron obtained from the blast furnace has a melting point of 1200°C while that of pure iron is 1535°C. Explain. {1 mark}

    c. What is the purpose of limestone in the blast furnace? {1 mark}

    d. State one physical property of molten slag other than density that allows it to be separated from molten iron as shown in the diagram above. {1 mark}

    e. State one use of fire-brick lining in the blast furnace. {1 mark}

    f. i. Name one of the reducing agents used to reduce iron {III) oxide to iron metal in the blast furnace. {1 mark}

    ii. Using the named reducing agent in f(i) above and iron (III) oxide, write an equation involving this reaction. {1 mark}

    g. Explain why the temperature in the region marked A is higher than that of the incoming hot air. {1 mark}

    h. i. What name is given to the 90- 95% pure iron obtained from the blast furnace? {1 mark

    ii. lron from the blast furnace contains about 5% carbon. State how the carbon content is reduced. {1 mark}

    7.a. A sample of water containing 0.001 moles of calcium hydrogencarbonate was added to 90 cm³ of 0.01M calcium hydroxide.

    i. Write an equation for the reaction that took place. {1 mark}

    ii. Calculate the number of moles of calcium ions in 90 cm³ of 0.01M calcium hydroxide. {1 mark}

    iii. What would be observed if soap solution was added dropwise to a sample of the water that had been added to calcium hydroxide. Give a reason. {2 marks}

    b. The column below was used to soften hard water.

    i. Explain how the hard water was softened as it passed through the column.{1 mark}

    ii. After sometime the material in the column is not able to soften hard water. How can the material be regenerated?

    iii. State one disadvantage of using hard water in boilers. {1 mark}

    c. Identify the reagent that acts as a base in the equation below. Give a reason. {2 marks}

    Chemistry Paper 3 - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    1. You are provided with: Solution A, Dilute hydrochloric acid. Solution B, made by dissolving 0.5g of sodium hydroxide in water and made to 250cm³ of solution.

    Solid C, Magnesium ribbon. Phenolphthalein indicator.

    You are required to:

    i. Standardize solution A.

    ii. Determine the rate of reaction between solution A and magnesium.

    Procedure I:

    i. Measure exactly 1 Ocm³ of solution A using a burette and transfer into a 250ml volumetric flask. Top up to the mark using distilled water and shake thoroughly. Label this solution D.

    ii. Drain the remaining solution A in the burette, rinse the burette thoroughly and fill the burette with solution D.

    iii. Pipette 25cm³ of solution B into a conical flask. Add three drops of phenolphthalein indicator.

    iv. Titrate solution D with solution B. Record your results in the table below. Repeat procedures (i) to (iv) to complete the table.

    a. Calculate the average volume of solution D used.(show your working) (1 mark)

    b. Write an equation for the reaction that took place. (1 mark)

    c. Calculate the molarity of sodium hydroxide solution.(Na =23,0=16,H=l ) (1 mark)

    d. Calculate the number of moles of sodium hydroxide reacted. (1 mark)

    e. Calculate the number of moles of hydrochloric acid in 250cm³ of solution D. (2marks).

    f. Calculate the m9larity of hydrochloric acid in solution A. (1 mark)

    Procedure II:

    i. Cut solid C into equal pieces, each 2cm long.(I mark) ii. Using a burette, measure 12cm³ of solution A, into a clean boiling tube.

    iii. Drop one piece of solid C into the boiling tube containing solution A and start the stopwatch immediately. Stop the stopwatch when all solid C has just disappeared (dissolved).

    Record your results in the table below.

    iv. Repeat steps (ii) and (iii) above using 10.0cm³

    a. Calculate the concentration of each of the solution and and complete the table. Show your working. (2marks) b. Plot a graph of I /t (y-axis) against the concentration of solution A. (3marks)

    c. From the graph, determine the time taken for the reaction to reach completion when 1.5 moles of solution A are used. (2 marks)

    d. Comment on the shape of the graph. (1 mark)

    2. You have been provided with solid Q, Which is a mixture of two compounds. You are required to carry out the test below and record your observations and inferences in the spaces provided below.

    Procedure

    i. Put a spatulaful of mixture Q in a boiling tube.

    ii. Add about 7cm³

    of distilled water to the mixture and shake thoroughly. Filter the mixture.

    iii. Wash the residue with distilled water and keep both the residue and the filtrate.

              Observation                                                      Inference
                                                    1 mark                                                                                                                                         1 mark                                                                        
    iv. Divide the filtrate into four portions
              Observation                                                      Inference
                                                    1 mark                                                                                                                                         1 mark                                                                        
    v. Add 5 drops of acidified 2M barium chloride to the first portion.
              Observation                                                      Inference
                                                    1 mark                                                                                                                                         1 mark                                                                        
    vi. Add 3 drops of 2M lead (II) nitrate solution to the second portion.
              Observation                                                      Inference
                                                    1 mark                                                                                                                                         1 mark                                                                        
    vii. Add 2M sodium hydroxide to the third portion dropwise until in excess.
              Observation                                                      Inference
                                                    1 mark                                                                                                                                         1 mark                                                                        
    viii. Add 2M ammonia solution to the fourth portion drop wise until in excess.
              Observation                                                      Inference
                                                    1 mark                                                                                                                                         1 mark                                                                        
    ix. Scrape the residue from the filter paper and transfer it into a boiling tube.

    x. Add some dilute 2M Nitric (V) acid while shaking until all the solid dissolves.

    xi. Divide the solution into three portions.

    xii. To the first portion add 2M sodium hydroxide a few drops till in excess.

              Observation                                                      Inference
                                                    1 mark                                                                                                                                         1 mark                                                                        
    xiii. To the second portion add a few drops of 2M ammonia solution till in excess. xiv. To the third portion add 5 drops of 2M hydrochloric acid and warm the mixture.
              Observation                                                      Inference
                                                    1 mark                                                                                                                                         1 mark                                                                        

    Agriculture Paper1 - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    Section A (30 MARKS)

    Answer ALL questions in this section.

    1. Give four methods of applying fertilizers to crops. (2 marks)

    2. State four beneficial biotic factors that influence agriculture. (2 marks)

    3. Give four branches of Agriculture. (2 marks)

    4. State four advantages of co-operative land tenure system. (2 marks)

    5. State four benefits of organic mulch in crop production. (2 marks)

    6. State four conditions under which shifting cultivation is practiced. (2 marks)

    7. Give four effects of mass wasting. (2 marks)

    8. Give four factors that affect the rooting of cuttings. (2 marks)

    9. Name four details that are included in a farm marketing record. (2 marks)

    10. Give four examples of product-product relationships in the management of agricultural enterprises. (2 marks)

    11. State three entries that are made in a journal.(1½ marks)

    12. Give two reasons for cutting back pyrethrum. (1 mark)

    13. State three parameters used to indicate national development. (1½ mark)

    14. State four symptoms of viral diseases in crops. (2 marks)

    15. Give four reasons for draining land as part of land reclamation. (2 marks)

    16. State two reasons for topping a pasture. (1 mark)

    17. State two advantages of metal pipes over plastic pipes in piping water in the farm. (1 mark)

    Section B (30 MARKS)

    Answer ALL questions in this section.

    18. Study the following weeds and answer questions that follow.

    a. Give the identity of weeds J and K. (2 marks)

    b. What makes weed K difficult to control? (1 mark)

    c. Give the economic importance of weed J. (1 mark)

    d. State one reason that makes weeds excellently adapted to various environments. (1 mark)

    19. Study the diagram below of a method of compost making and answer the questions that follow.

    a. Identify the methods of compost making. (1 mark)

    b. State four factors to consider when siting the structure. (2 marks)

    c. What is the function of the following materials in preparation of compost manure i. Top soil (1 mark)

    ii. Wood ash (1 mark)

    20. Two maize pests are shown in the diagram below. Study them and answer questions that follow.

    a. Identify the pests in the diagram labeled A and B. (1 mark)

    b. At what stage of maize production does each pest damage the crop? (2 marks)

    c. Give one way of controlling each of the pests in the field. (2 marks)

    21. The diagram below represents a vegetative material used to prepare a certain crop. Study them and answer the questions that follow.

    i. Give the name of the material illustrated above. (1 mark)

    ii. Give the name of the preparation done on the material to make it ready for planting. (1 mark

    iii. State three advantages of carrying out the practice in (ii) above before planting. (3 marks)

    Section C (40 MARKS)

    Answer ANY TWO questions from this section in the spaces provided

    22. a. Describe the growing of dry bean seeds under the following subheadings. - Selection and preparation of planting materials (3 marks)

    - Planting (4 marks)

    - Weeding (3 marks)

    b. Describe the environmental conditions that may lead to low crop yields. (10 marks)

    23. a. Explain six factors considered in designing a crop rotation programme. (6 marks)

    b. Explain the factors that influence the type of irrigation to be used in a farm. (8 marks)

    c. Explain six post-harvest practiced carried out on production of maize. (6 marks)

    24. a. Explain five advantages of budgeting in farming. (10 marks)

    b. Explain five various types of risks and uncertainties. (5 marks)

    c. Describe the importance of pruning perennial crops. (5 marks)

    Agriculture Paper 2 - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    SECTION A (30 MARKS)

    Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

    1. Give three factors that affect the quality of honey. (1½ marks)

    2. State three conditions that make a cow to withhold milk during milking. (1½ marks)

    3. State four signs of furrowing observed in pigs. (2 marks) 4. Give three factors that may make birds to lay eggs on the floor in a deep litter. (1½ marks)

    5. Give three characteristics of clean and high quality milk. (1½ marks)

    6. Outline four control measures of round worms. (2 marks)

    7. State four signs of liver fluke infestation in cattle. (2 marks)

    8. Give four reasons of breeding in cattle. (2 marks)

    9. List four methods of preserving fish. (2 marks)

    10. Name two classes of livestock feedstuffs. (1 mark)

    11. Give two roles of ovaries in cows’ reproductive system. (1 mark)

    12. Give two reasons for flushing in sheep. (1 mark)

    13. Give four reasons for treating timber used in construction of farm buildings. (2 marks)

    14. State four factors that influence the daily water intake in an animal. (2 marks)

    15. Name two functions of a clutch in the tractors transmission system. (1 mark)

    16. Give four characteristics of a good calf pen. (2 marks)

    17. State four factors that influence the choice of the poultry system of rearing to use. (2 marks)

    18. State four routine management practices carried out on a replacement stock that is a heifer. (2 marks)

    Section B (20 MARKS)

    Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided.

    19. The diagram below is a cross section of part of a cow's udder.

    a. Name the parts marked A, B, C and D. (2 marks)

    b. Name two hormones that control milk let down in a dairy cow. (2 marks)

    c. What is a dry cow therapy? (1 mark)

    20. The diagram below shows the head of a chicken having symptoms of a poultry disease

    a. Identify the disease. (1 mark)

    b. Give two reasons why the disease is of economic importance. (2 marks)

    c. Outline two methods of controlling the above disease. (2 marks)

    21. The following diagram shows parts of a roof. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.

    a. Name the parts labeled P, Q, R and S. (2 marks)

    b. State the functions of P and Q. (2 marks)

    c. Give two chemical preservatives for treating timber before use in the construction of farm structures. (2 marks)

    22. Below is a diagram of power transmission system of tractor engine. Study it and answer the question that follows.

    a. Name the parts labeled E, F, G and H. (2 marks)

    b. State the functions of E and H. (2 marks)

    Section C (40 MARKS)

    Answer ANY TWO questions from this section.

    23. a. Describe five pre-disposing factors of livestock diseases. (5 marks)

    b. Describe six mechanical methods of controlling ticks. (6 marks)

    c. Describe the factors that affect milk composition of a cow. (9 marks)

    24. a. State five advantages of farm mechanization. (5 marks)

    b. Explain five advantages of using a mould board plough in seed bed preparation. (5 marks)

    c. Describe the use of various materials in construction of a Kenya Top bar hive. (5 marks)

    d. Outline the care and maintenance of a tractor water cooling system. (5 marks)

    25. a. State four physical characteristics of a dairy cow. (4 marks)

    b. State nine factors to consider when selecting livestock for breeding. (9 marks)

    c. Describe milk fever in dairy cattle under the following sub-headings.

    i. The cause of the disease (1 mark)

    ii. Symptoms of the disease (4 marks)

    iii. Control measures (2 marks)

    Biology Paper 1 - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    1. Name the reagent used for testing presence of (3 marks)

    a. Starch

    b. Reducing sugars

    c. Vitamin c

    2. State the processes which occur in each of the following organelles. (2 marks)

    a. Chloroplast

    b. Mitochondrion

    c. Ribosomes

    3. A student observed a specimen through a light microscope. He used the objective lens marked

    X40.If he indicated the magnification of the image as x 400, what was the eye - piece magnification? (Show your working). (3 marks) 4. State the function of the following in mammalian trachea. (3 marks)

    a. Rings of cartilage

    b. Mucus

    c. Cilia

    5. a. What do you understand by the term biological control? (1 mark)

    b. Explain why all the energy produced by producers does not flow to the tertiary consumers. (2marks)

    6. Name any three forces that maintain the transpiration stream (3 marks)

    7. Give the form in which the following gases are transported in blood. (3 marks)

    a. Oxygen

    b. Carbon (IV) oxide

    c. Carbon (II) oxide

    8. a. Name the main group of organisms which comprise the Kingdom Monera. ( 1mark)

    b. State any three ways in which the organisms named in 8 (a) above affect human lives. (3marks)

    c. State the main characteristics of Monera which distinguish it from all other kingdoms. (1 mark)

    9. State ways in which the xylem tissue is adapted to carry out its function. ( 3marks)

    10. Why is it necessary for an athlete to breathe heavily after running? ( 2 marks)

    11. State ways in which the following diseases can be prevented a. Typhoid and amoebic dysentery (2 marks)

    b. Malaria (2 marks)

    12. What are the three distinguishing features of phylum Arthropoda? (3marks)

    13. a. Name the main product of the dark stage of photosynthesis. ( 1mark)

    b. What is the role of chlorophyll during photosynthesis (2mark)

    14. Name three mechanisms that prevent self-pollination in flowers that have both male and female parts. (3 marks)

    15. State three applications of anaerobic respiration. (3 marks)

    16. What is the significance of highly folded inner membrane of a mitochondrion? (2 marks)

    17. Why is it necessary for blood from the gut to pass through the liver before joining general circulation? (2 marks)

    18. A person’s urine tested positive for reducing sugars. a. Name the type of sugar present in the urine. ( 1mark)

    b. Name the gland and the hormone which failed to control the above condition. ( 2marks)

    Gland................................. Hormone........................... c. Which disease was the person suffering from? ( 1mark)

    19. State two roles played by the process of reproduction. ( 2marks)

    20. What is the habitat of the following plants? ( 3marks)

    a. Xerophytes

    b. Hydrophytes

    c. Halophytes

    21. a. State ways in which molars are adapted to their functions. ( 2marks)

    b. Name any two dental diseases. (2 marks)

    22. How is the sperm cell adapted to carry out its function? (3 marks)

    23. The following are diagrams of two pollen grains.

    a. State one observable difference between K and L. (1 mark)

    b. State the agent of pollination for each of them. (2 marks)

    K...................................................

    L...................................................

    24. How do sunken stomata reduce transpiration? ( 2 marks)

    25. Give the classes to which the following animals belong. ( 3 marks)

    a. Human being

    b. House fly

    c. Spider

    26. a. State one event that occurs in prophase of meiosis I which does not occur in prophase of mitosis. (1 mark)

    b. What are the results of the above phenomena? (2 marks)

    27. Explain why growing grass die a few days when salt is sprinkled on it. (3 marks)

    Biology Paper 2 - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    1. a. What is meant by the following terms?

    i. Protandry ( 1mark)

    ii. Self sterility ( 1mark)

    b. The diagram below shows a stage during fertilization in a plant.

    i. Name the parts labelled Q,R and S (3 marks)

    Q................................................

    R................................................

    S................................................

    ii. State two functions of the pollen tube (2 marks)

    iii. On the diagram label the microphyle. (1mark)

    2. a. Explain what happens to excess amino acids in the liver of humans. (3marks)

    b. Which portions of the human nephron are only found in the cortex? (3 marks)

    c. i. What would happen if a person produced less antidiuretic hormone? (1 mark)

    ii. What term is given to the condition described in C (i) above? (1mark)

    3. a. i. What is meant by the term biological control? (1mark)

    ii. Give an example of biological control. (1mark)

    b. i. What is eutrophication? (3marks)

    ii. What are the effects of eutrophication? (3 marks)

    c. Name a substance that is responsible for acid rain. (1mark)

    4. Leaves are the organs of photosynthesis. The following diagram shows what happens in a plant leaf during photosynthesis.

    a. Give two ways in which leaves are adapted to absorb light. (2 marks)

    b. Name the gases labelled X and Y. ( 2marks)

    X..........................................

    Y..........................................

    c. Name the tissue which transport:

    i. Water in to the leaf. ( 1 mark)

    ii. Sugars out of the leaf. (1 mark)

    d. Explain why it is an advantage for the plant to store carbohydrates as starch rather than as sugars. (2marks)

    5. Some millet seeds were socked in water for two days. They were then broken into small pieces and placed on the surface of agar containing starch. After two days it was found that the agar no longer contained starch. a. Suggest how the test for starch in the agar was carried out. (1 mark)

    b. Explain why there was no starch in the agar after two days. (2marks)

    c. Why was it necessary to soak the seeds? (1mark)

    d. Why were the millet seeds broken into small pieces? (1mark)

    e. State the observation that would be made if the seeds had been soaked in boiling water? ( 1mark) f. Suggest a control experiment that would have been suitable. ( 2marks)

    SECTION B: Answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided after question 8

    6. A research was carried to determine the trend of growth of some boys and girls.Their average mass in kilograms was taken separately for a period of 20 years and tabulated as shown in the table below.

    Age Average mass of boys (kg) Average mass of girls (kg)

    0 2.5 2.5

    2 11.5 11.5

    4 15.0 16.0

    6 18.5 19.3

    8 22.1 27.1

    10 25.1 27.1

    12 27.5 30.5

    14 37.0 35.5

    16 44.0 44.0

    18 46.9 52.0

    20 48.5 55

    a. On the same axis draw a graph of the average mass of the girls and boys against age. (7marks)

    b. From the graph , determine the;-

    i. Mass of boys at the age of 11 years. (1 mark)

    ii. Growth rate of girls between ages 13 and 15. ( 3 marks)

    c. Account for the change in the mass of girls during the age stated in (ii) above. (2 marks)

    d. Explain the trend observed in the curves for both boys and girls. ( 2 marks)

    e. Why do girls above 10 years require in take of food that is richer in iron than boys of the same age? (2 marks)

    f. Apart from using average mass to estimate growth in human beings, name two other parameters that can be used. (2 marks)

    7. Describe how the various parts of the human digestive system are adapted to their functions. (20 marks)

    8. a. State the causes of air pollution. (5 marks)

    b. State how air pollutants affect organisms hence state how air pollution should be controlled. (15 marks)

    Biology Paper 3 - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    1. a. You are provided with a solution L. Using the reagents provided; determine the food compounds in L. Fill in the table below.

    FOOD COMPOUND PROCEDURE OBSERVATION CONCLUSION
    Starch To 2cm3 of solution L
    add drops of iodine
    1mk
    Colour turns brown
    /yellow 1⁄2 mk
    Starch absent 1⁄2 mk
    Reducing sugar To 2cm3 of solution L
    ,add benedicts
    solution and boil 1
    mark
    Colour changes from
    blue to green to
    yellow/orange 1⁄2 mk
    Reducing sugars
    present 1⁄2 mk
    proteins To 2cm3 of solution L
    add 3 drops of NaOH
    followed by drops of
    CuSO4 and shake 1mk
    solution remains blue
    1⁄2 mk
    Protein absent 1⁄2 mk
    Ascorbic acid
    (vitamin c)
    To 2cm3 of solution
    DCPIP add solution L
    dropwise shaking till in
    excess 1mk
    DCPIP decolourised 1⁄2
    mk
    Vitamin C /Ascorbic
    acid present 1⁄2 mk
    b. Place 10mls of solution L in a visking tubing. Tie both ends and place it in 50mls of distilled water contained in a beaker.leave the set up for 20 minutes and make observations. i. Observations. (1mark)

    solution in the visking tubing increases in volume ii. Account for the observation in b (i) above. (2marks)

    Water moves by osmosis; in the visking tubing due to the high osmotic pressure of the solution in the visking tubing iii. Give the equivalent of a visking in the bodies of living organisms. (1mark)

    Cell membrane/plasma membrane/plasmalema 2. Study the photomicrograph of the longitudinal section of a maize fruit below and answer the questions that follow.

    a. i. Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D. (4marks)

    A – Endosperm

    B – Radicle

    C - Plumule D – Plumule sheath/coleoptile

    ii. Give the role played by A and D. (2 marks)

    A - stores food for the embryo; D - protects the delicate plumule from mechanical damage;

    b. i. Name the type of germination exhibited by maize grain. ( 1 mark)

    hypogeal; < b>ii. Place the organisms from where the photomicrograph was obtained into its Kingdom Division Class (3marks)

    Kingdom – Plantae; Rej plant

    Division – spermatophyte

    Class –Monocotyledonae; rej monocot/monocotyledon

    iii. State three characteristics of members of the class identified in b (ii) above (3marks

  • Fibrousroots

  • Parallel venation;

  • Floral parts occur in three /multiples of three;

  • Sheath like petiole; Mark first three

    c. Give one reason why the maize grain is classified as a fruit. (1mark)

    Has two scars; 3. Study the organisms drawn below and answer the questions that follow.

    a. Use the dichotomous key below to identify the class the organisms belong to. (12 marks)

    a. a. Phylum Chordata ............................................................... go to 2

    b. Phylum arthropoda ............................................................. go to 3

    b.

    a. Has scales on the body ......................................................... go to 4

    b. Has no scales on the body ..................................................... Mammalia c. a. Has cephalothorax .............................................................. Arachnida b. Has no cephalothorax .......................................................... go to 5 d.

    a. Has fins ........................................................................... Pisces

    b. Has no fins ........................................................................ go to 7

    e. a. Has three pairs of legs .......................................................... Insecta b. Has more than three pairs of legs ............................................. go to 6 f. a. Two pairs of legs per segment ................................................ Diplopoda b. One pairs of legs per segment ................................................. Chilopoda g.

    a. Has feathers ...................................................................... Aves b. Has no feathers .................................................................. go to 8 h.

    a. Has a tail .......................................................................... Reptilia

    b. Has no tail ....................................................................... Amphibia

    Specimen Step followed Identity

    A

    B

    C

    D

    E

    F

    Specimen          Steps         Identity
             A 1b,3a; Arachnida
    B 1a,2a,4a; Pisces
    C 1b,2b,5b,6b; Chilopoda
    D 1a,2a,4b,7b,8a Reptilia
           E 1a,2a,4b,7a; Aves
           F 1b,3b,5a; Insecta
    b. If the actual length from the tip of the mouth to the tip of the tail of the specimen B is 100mm, calculate the magnification. (2marks)

    b. Magnification = Diagram length/ Actual length = 50mm/100mm;

    = ×1⁄2 or ×0.5;

    Geography Paper 1 Questions and Answers - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    1.a. Three ways how air pressure influences weather

  • Low air pressure areas usually experience convergence of winds e.g. at the equator the S.W winds meet the N.E winds (Trade) to form the I.T.C.Z resulting into rainfall
  • High pressure areas usually get winds moving away (diverging) and this leads to dry conditions without rainfall
  • Lower atmospheric pressure increases the amount of water vapour (humidity) into the atmosphere and the higher the atmospheric pressure the lower the humidity (3 marks)

    b. Two Global winds

  • Trade winds
  • Westerlies
  • Polar winds (Any 2 x 1 = 2 marks)

    2.a. Chemically formed sedimentary rocks

  • Travertine / Dolomite / Rock salt
  • Gypsum / Haematite / Trona

    b. Conditions necessary for formation of coral

  • Warm water whose temperature is between 20 to 30 degrees Celsius
  • Shallow water with the depth of less than 60 m
  • Saline ocean water / salty water
  • Clear and well oxygenated water free from silt / mud
  • Submerged conditions even at low tides (Any 3 x 1 =3 marks)

    3.a. Two theories that explain the origin of the earth

  • Passing star theory
  • Nebula cloud theory

    b. Three proofs that the earth is oblate spheroid

  • It is possible to circumnavigate the earth as was done by Magellan in 1519
  • The fact that there is a difference of 1 hour between fifteen degree meridians apart show the sun is first seen in eastern part of the world then the western side
  • The shape of the shadow cast on the moon during the eclipse of the moon is spherical
  • The horizon of the earth viewed form above in the atmosphere is spherical
  • An approaching show will show the smoke first and the a gradual appearance
  • Through a telescope other planets have shown a spherical shape and the earth being one of the planets should be spherical (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    4.a. Categories of lakes formed by earth movement

  • Down warped lakes – Lake Victoria, Lake Kyoga
  • Rift valley lakes – Lake Nakuru, Lake Baringo, Lake Bogoria (2 marks)

    b. Examples from East Africa

  • Down warped lakes – Lake Victoria, Lake Kyog
  • Rift valley lakes – Lake Nakuru, Lake Baringo, Lake Bogoria (Any 2 x 1⁄2 = 1 mark)

    5.a. Definition of hydrological cycle

    It is the interchange of water between land, sea and air through the process of evaporation, precipitation and percolation of water into the ground and the surface run-off (2 marks)

    b. Factors that determine the amount of water that sinks into the ground or flows on the surface

  • The prevailing climate conditions
  • The type of soil
  • The nature of the landscape
  • The underlying geological structure (4 marks)

    6.a.i. Identify two human made features found at the grid square 2320

  • Bridge / mc call’s bridge

  • All weather road loose surface (2 marks)

    ii. What is the altitude of the highest point in the area covered by the map?

    2362 metres a.s.l (2 marks)

    iii. Three types of vegetation found in the area east of easting 40 and north of northing 27

  • Forest
  • Scrub
  • Woodland
  • Scattered trees
  • Thicket (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    b.i. Bearing of air photo principle point at grid square 2931 form the air photo principle point at grid square 3426

    - 318 ± 1 (317o

    – 319o (2 marks)

    ii. Measure the distance of the dry weather road (C640) form the junction at point M(345142) to the junction at N(416200)give your answer in kilometres

    - 1 km ± 0.1 (12.0 – 12.2 km) (2 marks)

    c.i. Draw a rectangle measuring 3 cm by 4 cm to represent area bounded by easting’s 28 and 31 and northing’s 11 and 15

    ii. On the rectangle draw, mark and name the following;

  • Loose surface road
  • Air photo principle point
  • Swamp
  • Pond (4 marks)

    d.i. Identify four social services offered in Kitale Municipality

  • Educational services – school at grid square 2614
  • Transportation – roads e.g. C638
  • Commercial service / Trading – e.g. presence of shops
  • Religious services – churches
  • Health services – hospital grid square 2312 (Any 4 x 1 )= 4 marks

    ii. Describe the drainages of the area covered by the map

  • The main drainage feature is rivers
  • The main river is river Koitobos
  • Most of the rivers are permanent
  • The main river flows from North West towards south eas
  • There are numerous seasonal swamps towards the western part of the map
  • Many tributaries join the main river forming dendritic pattern e.g. grid square 2419
  • There are many dams in the area covered by the map e.g. grid square 3910
  • Many rivers disappear into the swamps e.g. grid square 2520

    7. Use the map below to answer questions (a) and (b)

    a. Name; i. The type of climate found in the shaded area marked Q. (1 mark)

    a.i. Polar / cold climate (1 mark)

    ii. Ocean currents marked R and S

    R – Canary ocean current

    S – Gulf stream (2 marks)

    b. Characteristics of the climate marked T

  • Temperatures are high throughout the year at about 27oC (5oC)
  • Experiences high rainfall of between 1500mm and 2000mm evenly distributed throughout the year
  • Experiences a double maximum rainfall region / two rainy seasons caused by overhead sun twice a year
  • The region also has high humidity due to heavy rainfall and high evaporation rates
  • Major winds experienced at the south-east and north-east trade winds
  • Experience low pressure all year round thus no distinct season
  • Rainfall is mainly convectional type usually accompanied by thunderstorms; highlands experience relief / orographic rainfall (Any 4 x 2 = 8 marks)

    c. How the following factors influence climate i. Altitude

  • This is the height above sea level
  • Low lands are usually warmer than the highlands because the atmosphere becomes thinner as altitude decreases where the ground losses heat faster
  • Atmospheric pressure decreases with increase in altitude. This is due to the weight of atmospheric air above highlands being less than in lowlands (4 marks

    ii. Distance from the sea

  • During hot seasons, coastal lands are relatively hotter than inland areas on
  • Get more notes and past papers at downloads.easyelimu.com. the same latitude due to the existing effects of the sea breezes.
  • By the time the sea breezes reach inland areas, they have adopted to the temperature of the land over which they are passing
  • Coastal land receives more rainfall than the interior of continents. This is due to the coats receiving moist winds from the sea but by the time the winds reach inland areas they are usually dry (4 marks)

    d.i. Effects of climate change to the physical environment

  • High rainfall results to flood that will a proof vegetation
  • High temperature results to drying of vegetation
  • Ice will melt leaving the mountain tops bear (Any 2 x 2 = 4 marks)

    ii. Climatical conditions experienced in the Sahara desert

  • Low annual rainfall (less than 250mm) dry climate
  • Occasional flash floods / sporadic rains
  • Clear skies / clear sunny days / high terrestrial radiation
  • High temperature during the day
  • A large diurnal range
  • Strong winds
  • Develops low pressure in summer and high pressure in winter
  • High mean annual temperature
  • Large mean annual range of temperature
  • Intense solar radiation Unreliable rainfall
  • Low humidity
  • High evaporation rate
  • Sudden rainfall (Any 2 x 1 = 2 marks)

    8.a.i. Factors that influence glacial erosion

  • Nature of the rock
  • Speed of glacier
  • Thickness and weight of ice
  • Availability of debris (Any 2 x 1 = 2 marks)

    ii. Parts labeled 1 to 6

  • 1 – Cirque
  • 2 – Rock step
  • 3 – Rock Basin Lake
  • 4 – Moraine dammed lake
  • 5 – Terminal moraine lake
  • 6 – Fluvial glacial deposits (6 marks)

    b. Ways in which tills are formed at the coast

  • Ablation till is formed when ice melts
  • Lodgement till is formed when till is deposited when the ice at the top of glacier reaches its melting point when the ice is still moving
  • Basal till is formed when the lower debris rich layers are slowed down by an obstacle
  • A flow till is when the debris found at the top of the glacier flow into the depressions that are within the ice
  • A till plain is formed when the till covers the ground forming irregular landscapes with small hills and depressions (Any 4 x 2) = 8 marks

    c.i. What is erratic?

  • It is a large boulder of rock layer which has been transported by a glacier and hence rests on a country rock that is very different form its own origin

    ii. Examples of erratic’s

  • Lower slope of Mt. Kenya at Teleki valley side
  • Kimberly district in South Africa
  • South eastern Ireland
  • Northern Germany (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    d.i. Types of interviews

  • Oral
  • Question based (2 marks)

    ii. Problems the researcher would have experienced

  • Windstorms and related diseases
  • Blowing sand that reduce visibility
  • Sand blown by the wind would also reduce smooth running of the researcher (Any 2 x 1 =2 marks)

    9.a. What is natural vegetation?

    Is the plant cover that exists on its own in an area without the interference of external modifying influences like people and animals (Any 1 x 2 = 2 marks)

    b.i. Types of vegetation found in the following countries

  • New Zealand – Downs
  • Argentina – Pampas
  • South Africa – Veld (3 marks)

    ii. State two factors why mountain tops have no vegetation

  • Temperature ids too low / too cold to support plant growth
  • There is no soil to support plant growth / bare rock
  • Precipitation / water is in the frozen state (Any 2 x 1 = 2 marks)

    c.i. Explain four ways in which coniferous forest is adapted to the climate conditions

  • Trees have needle-like leaves which helps to reduce water loss during winter
  • Trees have waxy skin which protects them from cold winters
  • Trees have conical shape which allows snow to slide off easily and therefore minimum demand to trees
  • Trees are evergreen which enable them to maximize utilization of sunlight during short summers
  • Tress trunks are flexible enabling them to sway / bend without breaking when there is presence of winds
  • Trees have shallow roots which are widely spread to enable them to utilize moisture form the top soil because sub-soil is mostly frozen
  • Trees have thick barks with a slot of resin which protects them from frost (Any 4 x 2 = 8 marks)

    ii. Explain how two following factors influence the distribution of vegetation; Altitude

  • At high altitudes where temperature is very low vegetation cover is low
  • At low altitudes where temperature is very high there is dense vegetation (2 marks)

    Human beings

  • Human beings influence vegetation positively through afforestation and negatively through felling of trees and burning of charcoal (2 marks)

    d.i. State four reasons why it is necessary to have a route map

  • Identifying the direction to take
  • Estimating the distance to be covered
  • Estimating the time likely to take
  • Planning schedule of activities
  • Identifying the location of different tree types (Any 4 x 1 = 4 marks)

    ii. Give two reasons you need a tape measure

  • To measure the height of trees
  • To measure the width and length of identified area of the forest/area of the section identified (2 marks)

    10.a.i. What is soil?

    Soil is the uppermost surface layer of loose or unconsolidated material which overlies the crucial rocks and on which plants grow (2 marks)

    ii. Three components of soils

  • Air / gases
  • Water / moisture
  • Organic matter / humus inorganic matter / minerals (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    b.i. Soil layers marked B, C, and D

  • B – Subsoil
  • C – Weathered parent materials
  • D – Bedrock (3 marks)

    ii. Two main processes of formation of soil in horizon A

    Elluviation

    Leaching (2 marks)

    iii. Characteristics of soil in horizon B

  • Consists of mainly silicate clays
  • Made up of hard pan (laterite)
  • Soils are prismatic (columnar)
  • It is a zone of illuviation / enrichment
  • Soil is generally dark in colour
  • Calcium carbonate / gypsum is present (Any 4 x 1 = 4 marks)

    c. Explain how the following helps in the maintenance of soil fertility and quality Crop rotation

  • Growing of different types of crops on the same piece of land prevents soil exhaustion since different crops require different nutrients form the soil hence soil fertility in improved (2 marks)

    Mixed farming

    Keeping of animals and growing of crops in the same piece of land improves the fertility of the soil. This is because manure form the animals is used to enrich the soil with minerals (2 marks)

    Bush fallowing

    When land is cultivated for some time and left to rest for a given period it improves the quality of soil in that the land regains its fertility during the period of rest (2 marks)

    d. State five uses of soils to human activities

  • Soils are used in building and construction
  • Some soil types are used as raw material for pottery / ceramics / bricks / tiles
  • Soils are used for agriculture
  • Some soil types are sources of valuable minerals
  • Some soils are mixed with herbs and sold for medicinal purposes
  • Some soils are directly used as food (Any 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

    Geography Paper 2 Questions and Answers - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1

    1.a. Two underground mining methods

  • Drift/adit mining
  • Slope mining
  • Shaft mining
  • Solution mining
  • Drilling mining (Any 2 x 1) = 2 marks

    b. Negative effects of mining on the environment

  • Leads to land dereliction
  • Leads to loss of biodiversit
  • Leads to pollution of environment
  • Lead to soil degradation
  • Encourages mass wasting

    Pits left after mining are filled with water that form breeding ground for mosquitoes Leads to disruption of water table (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    2.a. List down three human factors that favour wildlife conservation

  • Establishment of game reserve / national parks / game sanctuaries
  • Translocation of animals where they are in excess
  • Ban on game huntin
  • Creation of ant-poaching units
  • Protection of endangered species e.g. rhinos
  • Non-governmental initiatives like WWF
  • Establishment of KWS (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    b. State two advantages of domestic tourism

  • Promote national unity as Kenyans of diverse origins meet in parks
  • It is a source of government revenue / additional of revenue
  • Utilization of tourist’s facilities during off-peak seasons
  • Kenyans are able to learn more about natural gifts of nature
  • Creates to the citizens a sense of responsibility to conservation (Any 2 x 1 = 2 marks)

    3.a. What is floods?

    Floods are unusual covering of an area by water through a temporary rise of the level of a river lake or sea (Any 1 x 2 = 2 marks)

    b. Three rivers that cause large scale flood in Kenya

  • River Tana
  • River Yala
  • River Ewaso Nyiro
  • River Nyando
  • River Kuja (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    4.a. Define the following terms

    i. Fertility rate

    It is the total number of children / births that a woman would have between the ages of 15 – 49 years (1 x 1 = 1 mark)

    ii. Mortality rate

    This is the average number of deaths per 1000 in a given population (1 x 1 = 1 mark)

    b. Types of information that may be derived from an age sex pyramid

  • Sex ratio
  • Dependency ratio
  • Age
  • Life expectancy (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    5.a. Towns marked

    P – Tanga

    Q – Arusha

    R – Dodoma (3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    b. Two major functions of the town marked S

    Mainly an agricultural collection centre Industrial centre with too many light industries Administrative centre (Any 2 x 1 = 2 marks)

    SECTION B

    Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section

    6.The table below shows the value of export crops from Kenya in the year 1995.

    Crop / Year 1995
    Maize 224,000,000
    Coffee 168,000,000
    Tea 320,000,000
    Horticultural 190,000,000
    Total 902,000,000
    6.a.i.
    ii. State three advantages of divided rectangles

  • It is easy to draw or construct
  • It is easy to compare the component
  • It gives a clear visual impression
  • Each component proportional to the total can easily be such at a
  • Get more notes and past papers at downloads.easyelimu.com. glance (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    b. State four physical conditions that favour coffee growing in Kenya highlands

  • Cool temperature ranging between 14oC – 26oC
  • High rainfall well distributed throughout the year between 1000 – 2030 mm p.a
  • Gently sloping landscapes
  • Deep, well drained volcanic soils
  • High altitude of about 1000 – 2300 a.s.l
  • Well sheltered against strong sunlight (Any 4 x 1 = 4 marks)

    c. Processing of coffee form harvesting to marketing

  • Ripe berries are picked by hands
  • Berries are transported to the factories
  • Berries are sorted out and weighed
  • Berries are squeezed to remove the outer cover and graded
  • They are put in troughs to ferment and are washed
  • They are put on trays for drying in the sun and turned frequently and unwanted particles are removed / sorted out
  • The dry beans are weighed
  • Dry beans are put in bags and transported to the coffees mills
  • Dry beans are put in machines where the inner husks are removed / peeled off
  • Dry beans are winnowed and graded
  • The dry beans are then forwarded to coffee board for marketing NB: Sequence must be followed (6 x 1 = 6 marks)

    d. List three ways in which planted coffee is taken care by farmers

  • Watering of young plants
  • Mulching to reduce water loss
  • Constant weeding
  • Manure to maintain soil fertility
  • Spraying with herbicides
  • Pruning to regulate quality (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    7.a.i. Identify the irrigation schemes marked X, Y and Z and in each case the main crop grown

    X – Bunyala – Rice

    Y – Perkerra – Onions

    Z – Mwea Tebere – Rice Irrigation schemes 3 x 1 = 3 marks Crops 3 x 1 = 3 marks

    ii. Explain four factors that have led to the location of irrigation scheme Y

  • To control the seasonal floods of rivers perkerra this was used to devastate the area
  • The fertile loamy soils, most of which are deposited by floods, reduces use of fertilizers
  • Presence of flat and gentle sloping terrain which enable easy flow of water by gravity, which made it cheap to start the project because expensive pumping was not required
  • The dry / high temperature of the area necessitated use of irrigation as the only way to make food production possible / multiple cropping
  • The area was sparsely populated hence reduced expenses of resettlement of people (Any 4 x 2 = 8 marks)

    iii. State four problems experienced in the irrigation project marked Z

  • Siltation of the canals which interfere with the flow of water
  • Quelea Quelea birds destroys the crop
  • Presence of water borne diseases
  • Shortage of water during dry seasons
  • Inadequate labour during planting
  • Clogging of the canals by water weeds (Any 4 x 1 = 4 marks)

    b. What is a polder?

    It is a reclaimed piece of land form the sea in the Netherlands (1 x 2 = 2 marks)

    c. Give five benefits of the Zuyder Zee project

  • Lake Yssel provide fresh water for irrigation / domestic / industrial purposes
  • Risk of flooding was reduced through the use of dykes
  • Reclaimed land has increased arable land for crop cultivation
  • The construction of roads connecting north Holland and Friesland province has shortened distance
  • Degrees of soil salinity has reduced / lowered form Lake Yssel
  • Reclaimed areas are used for settlement, recreation and construction of industries (Any 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

    8.a.i. The two types of fishing grounds in Kenya

  • Marine / salty water fishing grounds
  • Inland / fresh water fishing grounds (2 x 1 = 2 marks)

    ii. Give two types of fishing methods

  • Pelagic fishing
  • Demersal fishing
  • Inshore fishing
  • Freshwater fishing (Any 2 x 1 = 2 marks)

    .iii. Four reasons why marine fishing industry is not well developed in east Africa

  • The warm tropical waters do not favour large scale breeding of fish species
  • The narrow continental shelf limits widespread growth of planktons for fish
  • There is a limited market at the coast due to low purchasing power
  • Inadequacy of capital and poor technology hamper the development of the industry
  • There is steep competition from industrialized nations which have better equipment
  • Rough sea wave limiting deep sea fishing (Any 4 x 1 = 4 marks)

    b. Explain four ways in which marine fisheries are being conserved in Kenya

  • To increase fish number or restock overfished areas there is breeding of fingerlings in fish farms and then release them into the sea
  • Restricting disposal of untreated waste the sea to ensure the water remains clean for survival of fish
  • Standardizing the size of fish nets used in fishing to ensure that only the mature fish are caught
  • Enforcing the international conventions in order to protect the endangered fish species
  • Licensing fishermen to control their number and ensure that there is no overfishing Restricting fishing to specific season to allow for breeding and maturing of fishing

    ensuring natural regeneration of fish (Any 4 x 2 = 8 marks)

    c.i. Methods of fishing used in the shaded area

  • Purse seining
  • Drifting
  • Trawling
  • Lining / hook and line
  • Trap method (Any 1 x 1 =1 mark)

    ii. Name ocean currents marked Q and R

    Q – Warm Gulf Stream

    R – Cold Labrador (Any 2 x 1 = 2 marks)

    d. Explain why major fishing grounds of the world are located in the temperate latitudes of the northern hemisphere

  • The areas have cool waters that have abundant supply of Plankton which is the main food for fish
  • The areas have extensive / wide continental shelves which allow light to penetrate to the sea bed hence encouraging the growth of micro-organisms used as food for fish
  • The cool waters experienced in most of the coastal areas in these latitudes encourage thriving of numerous fish species
  • The areas experience convergence of cold and warm currents that results in upwelling of ocean waters which bring planktons form the sea bed to the surface
  • The cool to cold climate in these latitude help in the preservation of fish
  • Most of the coastal areas have numerous sheltered bays which provide secure breeding grounds for fish
  • The sheltered bays found in some coastal areas provide suitable sites a for building fishing ports / fishing-landing sites
  • The land-derived minerals nourish the planktons which are food for fish
  • The large population in these areas provide a ready market for fish hence promoting the fishing industry (Any 3 x 2 = 6 marks)

    9.a. Distinguish between manufacturing and tertiary industries Manufacturing industries change raw materials into semi-finished / processed products while tertiary industries provide services (1 x 2 = 2 marks)

    b.i. Name four agricultural food processing industries in Kenya

  • Milk processing
  • Fruit processing
  • Coffee processing
  • Sugar processing
  • Cooking oil
  • Grain milling
  • Meat processing / canning (Any 4 x 1 = 4 marks)

    ii. Explain four factors that influenced the location of the iron and steel industries in the Ruhr region of Germany

  • Availability of iron ore / coal / limestone form the Rhine valley provided raw materials needed in the industrie
  • Availability of water form rivers Rhine / Ruhr / Lippe / Wupper / Emscher for cooling machines / industrial use
  • Navigable rivers e.g. Rhine / Ruhr canals e.g. Dortmund – Ems / Rhein – Get more notes and past papers at downloads.easyelimu.com.
  • Herne provided cheap transport for bulky raw materials and finished products
  • Coal from the Ruhr region / imported provided power required in the industry
  • Rich merchants / families e.g. Krupp family and Ruhr Kohle provided capital for the industry
  • Availability of local skilled labour formed foundation of iron and steel industry
  • Dense population of central Europe / Germany provided ready market for iron and steel (Any 4 x 2 = 8 marks)

    c. Give five reasons why the government of Kenya encourages the development of Jua Kali industries

  • It creates employment for the growing labour force
  • It requires less capital to establish since it’s made up of small units
  • Produces relatively cheap products that are affordable to many people
  • They require simple machinery to start
  • Some of the products are exported thus earning foreign exchange
  • They save the country’s foreign exchange
  • Facilitates decentralization of industries hence reducing rural-urban migration
  • Uses locally available raw materials hence conserving the environment
  • It operates at grassroots level these use locally available skills (Any 5 x 1 = 5 marks)

    d. Field study in a coffee factory near your school

    i. State three reasons why you would visit the area of study in advance

  • To be able to formulate appropriate objectives for the study
  • To help in identifying methods of data collection
  • To help estimate the cost of the study
  • To seek permission
  • To determine the appropriate routes
  • To help in preparing the working schedule
  • To identify problems likely to be encountered
  • To estimate the time required for study
  • To determine the suitability of the area of study
  • To determine appropriate tools for the study (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    ii. You have prepared a work schedule for the study, state three items you would include in your schedule

  • The time for departure
  • Time to spend in the study
  • Time for lunch
  • Time for end of the study (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    10.a. Draw an outline map of Kenya

    b. On the map indicate

    i. Kakamega forest

    ii. Mt. Kenya forest

    iii. Arabuka sokoko forest

    c.i. Natural causes of forest depletion

  • Climatic hazard such as drought
  • Pests and diseases
  • Over population of wildlife leading to destruction (3 x 1 = 3 marks)

  • Forest fires caused by hunters destroy large section s of forests
  • Pests and diseases destroy trees and lower their quality
  • Excessive logging which in most cases is illegal
  • Human encroachment resulting from high population growth
  • Adverse climatic conditions such as drought or floods destroy sections of the forests (Any 4 x 2 = 8 marks)

    d.i. State three factors favouring production of soft wood forests in Canada

  • High precipitation that favours tree growth
  • Rugged relief discourages any form of agriculture
  • Many waterfalls used to generate H.E.P for use in paper mills
  • Presence of many rivers providing transport for the logs and also providing
  • water for use in pulp industry
  • Valley bottoms provide suitable sites for paper mills (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)

    ii. Explain three reasons why the Kenyan government should conserve her forests

  • Provide utility products e.g. timber which is used in construction
  • Forests are habitat for a wide range of animals and micro-organism hence helps in conserving and maintaining bio-diversity
  • Forests are rich reservoirs of research materials e.g. scientist carry research studies on medicinal plants which help cure certain diseases
  • Forests create micro-climate hence regulate climate of the surrounding areas
  • Forests support agriculture and H.E.P production by being water catchment areas and preventing soil erosion
  • Forests regulate carbon dioxide hence helps reduce global warming
  • Presence of forests and forest activities has led to development of infrastructure which opens up remote areas
  • Forestry as an industry provides more employment opportunities e.g. as forest guards and carpenters, this raises the standards of living
  • Flora and fauna of the forests have an aesthetic appeal hence attracts tourists who bring foreign exchange
  • Forests and its products have medicinal value which helps treat a variety of diseases (Any 2 x 2 = 6 marks)

    History Paper 1 Questions and Answers - 2019 K.C.S.E Prediction Set 1 Section A (25 MARKS)

    1.Name the branch of history that deals with traditions, values and cultural practices of people.

  • Social history

    2.Name the only southern Cushites group remaining in Kenya.

  • Dahallo/senge

    3.Give two age sets among the Nandi in the pre-colonial period.

  • Maina
  • Sawe
  • Chuma
  • Korongoro
  • Kipkoimet
  • Kiplelach
  • Kipnyige
  • Nyongi

    4.Apart from Vasco de gamma, name two other Portuguese generals who conquered the East African Coast.

  • Tristao da cunha
  • Ruy Laurence Ravasco
  • Francisco d’ Almeida
  • Padro Alveres Cabral.

    5.State the main way through which one qualifies to be a Kenyan citizen by their birth. If on the day of birth either the mother or the father of the person was or is a citizen. 6.Give one economic factor that promotes national unity in Kenya.

  • Equitable distribution of resources
  • Commercial interaction/ trade
  • Equal employment opportunities
  • Use of common currency

    7.State two functions of a constitution.

  • Provides legal ground from which the laws of a country are made
  • Spells out the powers of the government and its relationship to the governed.
  • It spells out the rights and duties of all citizens.

    8.What is direct or pure democracy?

  • People are involved directly in laws making

    9.Apart from the Nandi, which other two communities resisted British invasion in Kenya.

  • Agiriama
  • Bukusu
  • Somali

    10.Who introduced settler farming in Kenya.

  • Lord Delamere

    11.Name two nationalists outside central Kenya who were detained at Kapenguria in 1952.

  • Paul Ngei
  • Achieng Oneko

    12.Give the main political challenge that faced Mzee Jomo Kenyatta immediately after independence.

  • Split within K.A.N.U. i.e. disagreed with Jaramogi Oginga Odinga
  • Achieng Oneko and Bildada Kagia who broke from KANU and formed Kenya peoples union in 1966.

    13.State two electoral offences that are applicable to a voter.

  • Voting more than once
  • Ceasing violence during campaigns
  • Double registration as a votes

    14.Mention the document in which African socialism as a national philosophy was expounded.

  • Sessional paper number 10 of 1965

    15.State two ways through which the government has encouraged the preservation of African culture since independence.

  • Creation of the ministry of culture and social services
  • The syllabus has been tailored to include cultural studies.
  • The government has encouraged music/drama festivals
  • Development of cultural heritage center at the bomas of Kenya by the government.
  • Allowing the media houses to play traditional music.

    16.Name two members of the county executive committee.

  • County Governor
  • Deputy County Governor
  • Members appointed by the county governor with approval of the assembly who are not members of the assembly.

    17.Give the main function of the commission on revenue allocation in Kenya.

    To ensure equitable sharing of revenue between national and county government.

    SECTION B(45 MARKS)

    Answer three questions only from this section.

    18.a.State five results of the settlement of Luo during pre-colonial period.

  • Displacement of the bantu speakers
  • Absorption of some Bantus e.g. abasuba.
  • Increase in population
  • Intermarriages
  • Increased trade
  • Adoption of agriculture and iron work
  • Increased conflicts
  • Cultural exchange of initiation rites
  • Development of language(borrowing of new words)

  • Increased borrowing of political leadership e.g. chieftainship

    b.Describe the social organization of the Maasai in the 19th

  • The Maasai were divided into clans with each clan associated with a type of cattle
  • Maasai boys and girls were initiated at puberty through circumcision
  • All boys initiated together formed the warrior class called Morans
  • They believed in a supernatural being referred to as Enkai/Engai
  • They had religious leaders the chief among them being the Oloibon.
  • They had rainmakers and diviners
  • They had social ceremonies that accompanied the rites of passage.
  • They Eunoto ceremony marked the graduation of junior elders.

    a.State five reasons why the Portuguese built Fort Jesus in 1593.

  • Hiding place/protection
  • To act as a watch tower
  • Store for food
  • Used as an armoury
  • Prison for war captives
  • Acted as administrative centre
  • Acted as a base for sending expeditions against opponents

    b.Explain five results of the coming of Christian missionaries to Kenya.

  • They converted Africans to Christians
  • They built schools where Africans were taught how to read and write.
  • They built hospitals which helped to improve the health standards of the people
  • Introduced new cops and new farming methods.
  • Introduced new vocational skills e.g. carpentry and masonry.
  • Translated the Bible into local languages
  • Drew the map of the interior of the great lake region which inspired many explorers to come to Africa/ opened the interior of Kenya.
  • Undermined authority of African leaders
  • They wrote the first Kiswahili dictionary and grammar book
  • Established settlement for freed slaves
  • Helped to improve transport system-connection routes.

    20.a.State three roles of Mekatilili wa Menza in the Agiriama resistance against the British.

  • She encouraged the Agiriama to face the British by administering oaths.
  • She presented the grievances of the Agiriama to the British.
  • She rallied the people together against a common enemy.
  • Her leadership enlightened the roles of women in the struggle for independence.

    .Explain six effects of the Wanga collaboration against invasion in western Kenya.

  • Wanga kingdom expanded, she gained more kingdoms e.g. Samia, Bunyala etc
  • Mumia was declared a paramount in western Kenya.
  • Mumias headquarters Elureko became the seat of British administration in western Kenya.
  • Mumias warriors became agents of British colonization. They subdued other resisting communities e.g. the Luo of Ugenya and the Nandi.
  • Mumias princes became agents of British colonization his half brother Mulunga was appointed chief of Isukha and Idakho.
  • Mumia and his people gained material benefits of western education and religion.
  • Nabongo became an important ally of the British. He provided them with vital information ever appointment of chiefs.
  • Due to the Wanga collaboration there was intensified enemity and hospitality from other abaluty sections who viewed the Wanga as traitors.
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    21.a.State five factors that prompted the colonial government to construct the Kenya –Uganda railway.

  • To establish effective control over British East Africa
  • To facilitate economic exploitation of the region.
  • To facilitate movement of troops and British administrators.
  • To stop slave trade and establish legitimate trade
  • To link Uganda with the Coast and outside world for greater economic growth.

    b.Explain five factors that intensified African Nationalism in Kenya after 1945.

  • Acquisition of education by the African enabled them to articulate their grievances World war II –the ex soldiers made Africans to doubt the myth of British supremacy
  • Granting of independence to India and Pakistan in 1947 made Africans in Kenya to clamor for their independence.
  • Rise of Pan-Africanism contributed to new demands for political independence.
  • Emergence of USA and USSR as super powers the two compiled the Britain to give independence to African countries.
  • The signing of the Atlantic charter in 1941 stated that all subjects should enjoy the right to self determination.
  • Formation of united nations-asked Europeans to decolonize.
  • Change of government in Britain from conservative to labour. The labour government was willing to grant independence to African nation
  • Get more notes and past papers at downloads.easyelimu.com. interference.
  • Should be able to protect the fundamental rights and freedom of the citizens.
  • Amendment procedures should be clearly stated.
  • It must be representative of the diversity of social and political spectrum of the people.

    b.Explain five reasons why human rights are important in Kenya.

  • Human rights are necessary for human beings to achieve a dignified life.
  • Rights are inherent to human beings. One has rights purely because they are human.
  • Rights e.g. rights to vote, information and expression ensure public access to necessary information.
  • Rights empower citizens by giving them central on decision making organs of the government.
  • They justify special treatment of the minorities and other disadvantaged groups.
  • Provide guidance to organs of the state regarding exercise of state power.
  • Respect for rights limits internal and external conflicts.

    24.a.State three ways in which the High court supervises the work of the subordinate courts.

  • udges of the High court scrutinizes the monthly returns of cases in subordinate courts.
  • Ensures justice is done through appeals, revision or confirmation of sentences/authority to call for records.
  • It transfers or relocates sentences
  • Supervises criminal and civil proceedings before subordinate court.

    b.Explain six functions of the cabinet in Kenya.

  • Assists the president in governing the country
  • Discusses matters of national and international concerns with the president
  • The cabinet formulates government policies and programmes
  • Cabinet initiates new bills and tables government bills in parliament.
  • A cabinet secretary for finance formulates and prepares national budget which he/she presents to the National Assembly.
  • Cabinet secretaries on their individual capacity give direction to operations within their ministries.

    HISTORY PAPER 2 Marking Scheme - 2019 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1 SECTION A (25 MARKS)

    Answer all questions from this section.

    1.Give two disadvantages of using electronic sources to study history and government.

  • May be biased
  • May be inaccurate
  • Expensive
  • Some actual films maybe exaggerated

    2.Who was the architect of the theory of Evolution.

  • Charles Darwin

    3.Mention one river associated with early agriculture in Mesopotamia.

  • Euphrates
  • Tigris

    4.Give two roles of the takshifs during the Trans-Sharan trade.

  • Protected the traders
  • Guarded the oasis
  • Guided the traders across the resort

    5.What is the main limitation of use of airships in transport.

  • Can easily catch fire from the hydrogen bags that makes them airborne.

    6.Give two disadvantages of use of radio.

  • If not properly controlled, radio volume can lead to noise pollution.
  • Radio has addiction effect on users
  • Some programmes promote immorality.

    7.State two political effects of industrial revolution in Europe.

  • The scramble and partition of Africa was facilitated by industrial revolution.
  • The industrial revolution gave rise to maxim which condemned capitalism because of its exploitative effects.

    8.Identify the main factor that contributed to the growth of Athens in ancient Greece.

  • Trade/commercial activities.

    9.Name the main symbol of unity among the shona in the 19th Century.

  • Religion (Mwari cult).

    10.State two ways in which the partition of Africa affected Europeans.

  • Europeans gained fame/ prestige/ recognition by having colonial possessions
  • Led to economic growth of European countries.

    11.What was the name of the company that administered Zimbambwe on behalf of Britain?

  • British south African company (BSAC) Nb: Reject if abbreviated!

    12.Apart from Nelson Mandela, mention any other Nationalist in South Africa.

  • Robert Mangadisho Sobutwe
  • Albert Luthuli

    13.Identify two reasons why united states of America was reluctant to join the First World War on the side of Allies.

  • USA favored an Isolationists policy in line with the Monroe Doctrine of 1823
  • She did not want to offend her citizens of German origin.
  • The war had not interfered with US interests up to 1916
  • She did not want the war to be fought on her soil

    14.Give two specialized agencies of the United Nations which deals with provision of loans to member countries.

  • The World Bank
  • The international monetary fund (IMF)

    15.Identify two organs of economic community of west African states (ECOWAS)

  • Authority of heads of states/ government
  • Council of ministers
  • Executive secretarial
  • Tribunal
  • Specialized commissions.

    16.Identify the main principal of the Arusha declaration of 1967.

  • Ujamaa (Socialism)

    17.Give one major political party in India.

  • Congress party
  • Bharatiya Janata Party

    SECTION B (45 MARKS)

    Answer any three questions only from this section.

    18.a.What three challenges did the early man face as he lived in caves.

  • Caves would collapse over them
  • Dangerous animals could attack him
  • Human enemies could attack him
  • Caves were exposed to cold/winds/floods.

    b.Explain six effects of development of early agriculture in Egypt.

  • led to production of more food.
  • More food led to more mass of population
  • People settled down permanently
  • Led to development of town such as Memphis and Thebes
  • Led to specialization in crafts
  • Led to development of trade
  • Led to development of social classes

    19.a.State three factors that facilitated the acaulistion of slaves during the Trans- Saharan trade.

  • The institution of slavery existed among many West African communities
  • Availability of fire arms
  • There existed well-developed routes leading to the interior slave markets
  • There was great demand for slaves in the new world.

    b.Explain six factors that led to the decline of Trans-Saharan trade.

  • The exhaustion of the main trading commodities such as salt and gold
  • Insecurity experienced in the region due to the collapse of Western Sudan Kingdom
  • The Ottoman Turks activities in North Africa.
  • Invasion of Moroccan ports along the Atlantic Ocean by the two Iberian countries- Portugal and Spain.
  • The Moroccan invasion of Western Sudan brought anarchy and disrupted trade
  • The growth of trans-Atlantic trade undermined Trans-Saharan trade- traders shifted their focus to the coast
  • The Anti-slave trade crusaders led to abolition of slavery –slaves were one of the main commodities in items of trade
  • Colonization of African continent- the resources in both North Sahara and Western parts came under European dominations.
  • European penetration – impacted negatively on the role of middlemen in this trade.
  • The establishment of commercial ports –traders now preferred to use water transport.

    20.a.What five factors characterized industrialization in Britain.

  • Use of machines
  • Construction of large scale factories
  • New sources of energy e.g. electricity
  • Manufacturing industry replaced agriculture as a source of wealth
  • Urbanized industrial societies replaced traditional societies
  • There was change in living styles
  • Goods were produced in large-scale

    b.Explain the problems facing industrialization in South Africa.

  • Economic sanctions imposed by the UN during apartheid regime provided industrialization.
  • Struggle to end apartheid was violent creating an atmosphere that was not conducive for investments
  • High poverty levels hence low purchasing power
  • High insecurity discourages investment
  • HIV/AIDS has savaged the country’s labour force.
  • Competition from more developed countries who produced goods of high quality
  • There were rampant industrial strikes in the country especially during the apartheid period.

    21.a.Identify five factors that enabled Europeans to easily conquer Africa during the scramble.

  • They had sophisticated weapons e.g. the maxim guns
  • Africans were divided
  • African communities had been weakened by natural calamities e.g. drought and famine
  • African military weakness favored European quest for colonies
  • The discovering of quinine- it made it possible for European countries to penetrate
  • Africa as they had discovered the cure for malaria.

    The invention of steamships made the Europeans access Africa easily.

    b.Explain five reasons why assimilation failed in Senegal.

  • Muslims resisted fiercely the attempt to convert them to Christianity
  • Some Africans cultures were very intact- it was hard to assimilate them
  • The traditional African chiefs did not want t lose their authority the assimiles
  • Racial segregation – the French men never accepted assimilated Africans as equals
  • The French men in France, opposed the policy as they did not want to be outnumbered in the French chamber of deputies
  • A lot of expenses would be incurred in the process of assimilating Africans- e.g. building schools and health centers.
  • There was fear among the French, that such assimilated Africans would become
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  • serious economic rivals
  • The policy of assimilation made it impossible to exploit Africans.

    SECTION C (30 MARKS) Answer any two questions from this section.

    22.a.State five peace treaties signed between Allies and the central powers to bring peace in Europe.

  • The treaty of Versailles with Germany
  • Treaty of St. German with Austria
  • Treaty of nevilly with Bulgaria
  • Treaty with Triarion with Hungary Treaty of serros with Turkey (treaty of Lausanne)

    b.Explain five social effects of World War II.

  • Led to bitter feelings and mistrust
  • Change in the status of women
  • Spread of diseases
  • Widespread suffering
  • Displacement of people
  • Loss of lives

    23.a.State five reasons why pan Africanism became more active in Africa after 1945.

  • World War II strengthened nationalism in Africa
  • The 1945 Pan-African conference in Manchester brought many African elites together
  • The attainment of independence in India and Pakistan in 1947 encouraged many nationalists in Africa.
  • The attainment of independence in Ghana in 1957 encouraged many African nationalist
  • The slowing down of Pan-African in America due to cold war attracted the same in Africa.

    b.Explain five functions of the United Nations Security Council.

  • Maintains international peace and security
  • Investigates any dispute or any situation that might lead to international friction or council dispute.
  • Calls upon states to settle their disputes peacefully
  • Recommends to states appropriate procedures to be followed in settling disputes
  • Determines whether any situation threatens peace and takes the necessary measures to maintain peace
  • Admits, suspends and expels members from the UN
  • Calls upon some or all members to provide or facilitate military action against aggressors

    24.a.Mention three ways of becoming a member of parliament in Britain.

  • Elections
  • Nominations
  • Inheritance
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  • Virtue of office of members of the house of lords maintain their parliamentary seats through this way

    b.Explain six functions of the president in USA.

  • He is the head of state
  • He is the chief executive
  • He is the chief legislator
  • He is the chief diplomat i.e keeps the congress, informed of the international developments.
  • He is the head of the party
  • He is the voice of the people and intervenes during disasters and other emergencies.
  • Commander in chief of the armed forces

    Christian Religious Education (C.R.E) Paper 1 Questions and Answers - 2019 K.C.S.E Prediction Set 1

    1.a. Outline seven importance of CRE to a secondary school student in Kenya. (7mks)

  • It equips the learner with an understanding of God / spiritual growth.
  • The learner acquires life skills to handle challenges in life.
  • It helps one to respect his/her own and other people’s religious beliefs.
  • It helps one to acquire basic principles for Christian living / moral values.
  • It enables one to understand how to relate with other people.
  • It gives answers to questions / mysteries of life.
  • It explains the origin / purpose of human beings on earth.
  • It leads to employment / careers. 7 x 1 = 7 marks

    b. Describe the second account of creation in Genesis 2:4b-25. (7mks)

  • The earth is described as being dry, uninhabited and plant less.
  • God formed man out of dust and breathed the breath of life into his nostrils, and man became a living being.
  • God planted a garden in the east, the Garden of Eden, and placed every tree in it.
  • In the middle were the tree of life and the tree of knowledge of good and evil.
  • Four rivers flowed to water the garden.
  • Man was commanded to till and conserve the garden.
  • He was to eat from all trees apart from the tree of knowledge of good and evil, otherwise he would die.
  • God then formed other creatures, birds and animals and thus commanded man to name them.
  • God saw that Adam was lonely and needed a companion.
  • He made Him fall asleep, removed one his ribs and formed the woman out of it. He brought her to man, who called her woman, because she was made from man.
  • They were naked but were not ashamed. 7 x 1 = 7 marks

    c. Give six traditional African views of creation. (6mks)

  • All African communities believe that God existed from the very beginning of time.
  • The names used to describe God in African communities refer to Him as the creator, master of the universe, moulder and even porter.
  • Africans also believe that human beings were created to live for ever in harmony with God.
  • Death comes to the world as God’s punishment for disobedience or other causes.
  • God the provider continues providing human beings with the basic needs of life.
  • Many creation stories in African societies agree that human beings were initially in a state of happiness, child-like ignorance and immortality, and with the ability to rise again after death.
  • Human beings were provided with the necessities of life and were very close to God.
  • After creating God also established laws of nature and human customs, to be followed.
  • God’s creation included the ordering of the destiny of human beings.
  • Africans do not agree on any clear-cut sequence of events at creation. Some communities agree that God started by creating the universe and ended by creation of human beings.
  • African communities agree that God continues to create through humankind, and child bearing is regarded as a blessing from God. 6 x 1 = 6 marks

    2.a. Describe the call of Moses in Exodus 3:1-22. (8 marks)

  • Moses was looking after the flock of his father-in-law, Jethro, in the Midian.
  • The angel of the Lord appeared to him in a burning bush on Mt. Sinai.
  • There was fire but the bush was not being consumed.
  • Moses became curious and moved closer to see what was happening.
  • When the Lord saw him coming closer, he called out Moses by his name.
  • When Moses answered, God commanded him not to come near any further.
  • God told him to remove his shoes because he was standing on holy ground
  • God revealed Himself as the God of Moses’ ancestors, Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
  • Moses was filled with fear and hid his face.
  • God told him that he had heard the cries of his people in Egypt and had come down to save them through Moses.
  • Moses was initially reluctant to go but God assured him of protection.
  • God revealed his name to Moses as “I am who I am”.
  • God foretold the hardness of Pharaoh to release the Hebrews unless forced by a mighty hand.
  • God promised to give favour to the Hebrews and would obtain jewelry, Gold and clothing. 8 x 1 = 8 marks

    b. Give reasons why Moses was reluctant to go back to Egypt. (6 marks)

  • He was afraid to face pharaoh who wanted to kill him.
  • He had killed an Egyptian.
  • He was not sure whether the Hebrews would accept him as their leader.
  • He was a stammerer/ not fluent in speech.
  • He lacked adequate knowledge on the identity of God who was calling him.
  • He lacked self-confidence.
  • He may have been worried about the family he had established in the Midian. 6 x 1 = 6 marks

    c. What do Christians learn about God from the call of Moses? (6 marks)

  • God hears and responds to the cry of his people.
  • God uses events to reveal himself to people.
  • God is holy.
  • God chooses people to perform certain tasks.
  • God does not give people impossible tasks
  • God protects his people.
  • God is powerful
  • God is just/punishes the enemies of his people.
  • God is beyond human understanding.
  • God is omnipresent.
  • God demands obedience from the people he call
  • God fulfils his promise
  • God is all knowing. 6 x 1 = 6 marks

    3.a. Outline seven ways in which King Jeroboam promoted the spread of idolatry in Israel.

  • He made two golden calves and placed one at Bethel and another at Dan to represent Yahweh.
  • He set up two rival places of worship and ignored Jerusalem.
  • He made the Israelites to offer sacrifice to the golden calves.
  • He chose priests from ordinary families to serve at worship centres.
  • He built other places of worship / shrines on hill tops.
  • He burnt incense on altars of the idols / made sacrifices to idols.
  • He instituted religious festivals in the month of his choice. 7 x 1 = 7 mks

    b. Give seven reasons why Elijah was uncompromising in his attitude to the worship of Baal.

  • He believed that only Yahweh was the Israelite God.
  • By worshipping Baal, people had broken the covenant law.
  • The worship of Baal led to the killing of Yahweh’s prophets.
  • Elijah had strong faith in God.
  • By condemning Baal worship, Elijah knew that he could put away the foreign ideology that Ahab was trying to bring into Israel.
  • As the people worshipped Baal they failed to recognize Yahweh as God and the Lord of everything.
  • Elijah believed that the people might turn to the covenant of faith.
  • Being a prophet, Elijah was against baalism because his vocation was o turn people back to the covenant way. Any 7 x 1 = 7 mks

    c. State six reasons why Christians should fight against the spread of devil worship in the society. (6 mks)

  • Devil worship is against God’s commandments.
  • It advocates for human destruction.
  • It advocates for materialism as the guiding factor of man’s success
  • Leads to lack of faith / depending on God
  • Rituals involved in devil worshipping are dehumanizing.
  • Christians fight devil worship to warn people of God’s judgement.
  • It instills fear on God’s people. Any 6 x 1 = 6 mks

    4.a. State six titles given to prophets in the Old Testament. (6mks)

  • Man of God.
  • A seer.
  • Nabii.
  • Servant of Yahweh.
  • Interpreter of God’s word.
  • A watchman of God’s word.
  • Messenger of God.
  • God’s spokesman.
  • A man of spirit. 6 x 1 = 6 marks

    b. Explain the evils committed by four nations that were to be punished by God according to Prophet Amos. (8mks)

  • Syria/Damascus – the people of Syria had threshed the people of Gilead with threshing sledges of iron during their war with Israel. God will destroy them with divine fire.
  • Philistia and Gaza – they had sold their fellow citizens as slaves to Edom to work in their copper industry. God will destroy them with divine fire.
  • Tyre/Phoenicia – the King of Tyre sold Israelites to Edom as slaves, breaking the covenant of brotherhood between Hiram and Solomon. God will destroy them with divine fire.
  • Edom – they had plundered Jerusalem, killed its citizens and carried some to slavery, yet these were their brothers. God will destroy them with divine fire.
  • Ammon – they had been cruel to the pregnant women of Gilead during their war with Israel. They will be sent to exile and God will destroy them with divine fire.
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  • Moab – they raided the royal graves of Edom and burnt the bones of the dead kings, thus a rebellion against God’s image in human beings. God will destroy them with divine fire. 4 x 2 = 8 marks

    c. Mention six ways how Christians can avoid God’s punishment today. (6mks)

  • By repenting their sins.
  • By obeying God’s word/ living exemplary lives/ living holy lives.
  • By praying and fasting.
  • By preaching/ evangelizing.
  • By having absolute faith in God.
  • By thanking/ praising God.
  • By doing works of charity/ helping the needy.
  • By condemning evils/ injustices in the society.
  • By reading/ studying/ meditating on God’s word.
  • By giving their tithes and offerings faithfully.
  • By going through baptism and other sacraments.
  • By fellowshipping with other Christians/ going to church. 6 x 1 = 6 marks

    5.a. Describe how the people of Judah renewed their covenant with God under the leadership of Ezra. (8 marks)

  • The entire Jewish community gathered in the public square in Jerusalem.
  • Ezra was asked to read the law to the people.
  • The people performed ritual gestures raising and lowering their heads and bodies as a sign of repentance.
  • They re-enacted the feast of booths/shelters and dwelt in the makeshift huts.
  • They had a national day of confession in which they fasted and put on sack cloths as a sign of penitence.
  • They separated themselves from foreigners.
  • Ezra led the people in a prayer of confession in which he recounted God’s love and faithfulness to his promises
  • The covenant was sealed through signing of the agreement by the leaders who included Nehemiah, the princes, the priests and Levites
  • The people promised to live in accordance with the Mosaic law and carry out its precepts.
  • Nehemiah re-distributed the population of the Jews in Jerusalem and country side. Community leaders were settled in Jerusalem to safeguard it against external attacks.
  • Nehemiah kept a record of the leaders who took residence in Jerusalem. 8 x 1 = 8 marks

    b. Give five reasons why Nehemiah carried out religious reforms in Judah. (5 marks)

  • To protect “the people of God” who had renewed the Mosaic covenant.
  • To ensure that those who were born Jews were loyal to the law and faithfully supported the Temple.
  • To ensure the survival of the people of God as a pure nation free from foreign blood.
  • To preserve the identity of the Jews.
  • So as to build a pure post-exilic community not contaminated by foreign influences. 5x1= 5 marks

    c. In what ways do Christians renew their covenant faith with God? (7 marks)

  • Partaking in the sacraments.
  • Confessing sins
  • Making public testimonies about their commitment to God through Jesus Christ.
  • Reading the Bible.
  • Holding bible study groups.
  • Attending Sunday church services.
  • Going for retreats.
  • Attending revival crusades/convention.
  • Praying and fasting.
  • Helping the needy and the poor 7 x 1 = 7 marks

    6.a. Identify seven occasions when prayers were conducted in Traditional African societies.

  • Daily at sunrise and at dusk.
  • During the breaking of virgin land for cultivation
  • At beginning of planting season.
  • When there was a disaster or calamity
  • During rites of passage like circumcision.
  • When going to war or signing a pact to end war.
  • During breaking of a curse.
  • When setting off on a long journey.
  • Whenever a taboo was broken.
  • During installation of a leader. Any 7 x 1 = 7 mks

    b. Outline seven roles of kinship system in traditional African society. (7 mks)

  • The system united members of the family, clan and community by providing then with a sense of identity.
  • Promoted harmonious relationships by defining expected behaviour between members of the community.
  • Preserved cultural identity through rituals and beliefs.
  • Enhanced a sense of security through strong bonds among members of the community.
  • Outlined the procedure for community ceremonies
  • Enforced responsibilities of the living towards the unborn and dead.
  • Enabled community members to support each other during times of crisis.
  • Created new relationships between families through marriage.
  • Set out punishment for errant members of the community.
  • Provided members with a sense of belonging to a single community. Any 7 x 1 = 7 mks

    c. What changes have taken place in property ownership in Traditional African communities.

  • Women / children can now own property.
  • Wealth is no longer determined by number of wives or children
  • Introduction of money economy has reduced value of land.
  • Role of elders in sharing property has been eroded.
  • Land is individually owned through issuance of title deed.
  • People write wills to show / decide who should inherit their property.
  • Property can be owned outside ones ancestral home.
  • Land can be sold / auctioned Any 6 x 1 = 6 mks

    Christian Religious Education (C.R.E) Paper 2 Questions and Answers - 2019 K.C.S.E Prediction Set 1

    1.a. What the Magnificat reveals about the nature of God.

  • God is a savior because he remembers the lowly.
  • God is mighty for he scatters the proud/does great things
  • God is merciful to those who fear him.
  • God is caring/protecting because he exalts the humble.
  • He is a provider/sustainer because he fills the hungry.
  • He is faithful because he keeps his promises
  • He is kind/helper to his servant Israel. 7×1

    b. Six activities that took place when Jesus was born

  • When Jesus was born his mother wrapped him in swaddling cloths.
  • She placed him in a manger
  • An angel appeared to the shepherds in the region to tell them of the birth of the savior.
  • A great company of heavenly hosts/angels appeared singing.
  • The shepherds decided to go to Bethlehem/hurried off the Bethlehem.
  • The shepherds saw the baby.
  • They spread the news about the baby to other people. 6×1

    c. Seven ways through which Christians in Kenya express their joy for the birth of Jesus.

  • They sing/listen to Christian songs.
  • Partake of the Holy Communion/ Eucharist
  • They exchange gifts/cards/messages
  • They visit friends/relatives
  • They decorate their homes/churches
  • They buy and wear new clothes
  • They prepare special meals/drinks 7×1

    2.a. Giving examples state seven methods used by Jesus to spread the gospel.

  • Preaching the good news in the synagogue.
  • He raised people back to life.
  • Casting out evil spirits/exorcism
  • Through miracles of nature i.e. calming the sea. Sermons i.e. sermon on the plain
  • He used parables i.e. parable of the sower
  • Setting a good example i.e. dying on the cross
  • He used live example i.e. child, sower etc.
  • Sent his disciples to go on a preaching mission
  • Visited people in their homes. 7x1

    b. Reasons why Jesus chose the twelve disciples.

  • In order to teach them the secrets of his Kingdom.
  • To have companions/personal assistants
  • To form an inner group
  • To be witnesses
  • To reveal his person/ give a new understanding.
  • To train/ prepare them for the mission.
  • To lay a foundation for the establishment of the church.
  • To continue with the biblical theme 6x1

    c. Identify problems faced by new converts in the church today

  • They are not accepted or they are discriminated.
  • Lack of role models i.e. Other Christians.
  • Not involving themselves in the activities of the church.
  • They are tempted to backslide.
  • They are expected to change faster.
  • Some experience language barrier.
  • They are not recognized.
  • Financial demands of the church.
  • Lack of concern when a member is in problem.
  • They are given duties which they cannot manage. 7 × 1

    3.a. With reference to the life and ministry of Jesus, show how he tried to promote social equality

  • He was the son of God but was born ordinary
  • He was born in a manger
  • He lived an ordinary Jewish child
  • He was first revealed to the shepherds who were ordinary people
  • He was not a sinner but he accepted baptism
  • He called everybody to repentance
  • He mixed with the rich and poor
  • He restored the status of women. 7x1

    b. With the story of the sinful woman as a reference, explain Jesus teachings on forgiveness

  • God is merciful
  • God forgives all types of sins
  • We should not judge sinners
  • Jesus loves even sinners
  • Those whose sins are forgiven live a righteous life
  • We should be tolerant to sinners 5x1

    c. Give ways in which Christians engage themselves in the healing ministry

  • Building churches
  • Buying medicines for the sick
  • Buying food for the needy.
  • Pay medical bills for the sick
  • Building rehabilitation Centre’s
  • Praying for the sick.
  • Guiding and counselling those who have despised in life
  • Taking care of the sick 8x1

    4.a. Give seven reasons why Jesus sent the Holy Spirit to his disciples after ascension

  • He was to counsel the disciples
  • He would guide the disciples on what is right
  • He was to convict people of their sins
  • Remind the disciples on what Jesus taught
  • He was to reveal the future
  • He would enable the disciples to perform miracles

  • He would replace the physical presence of Jesus
  • He would enable the disciple to witness about Christ 7x1

    b. List seven fruits of the Holy Spirit

  • Love
  • Joy
  • Peace
  • Patience
  • Kindness
  • Gentleness/humility
  • Self-control
  • Generosity
  • Faithfulness 7x1

    c. How are the gifts of the Holy Spirit manifested in the church today?

  • Through prayers
  • Through unity of believers
  • Through wise decision made in the church
  • There is faith healing in the church
  • Preaching the word of God
  • By Christian helping the needy/poor
  • Through giving in tithes
  • They speak in tongues
  • By composing of songs 6×1

    5.a. Outline eight Christians teaching on work

  • Work is ordained by God
  • Man should work to subdue the earth
  • Work is good
  • Work is rewarded
  • Man should work for basic needs
  • Laziness is condemned
  • Work become a curse in the garden of Eden
  • Through work , man become a co-creator with God
  • Those who do not work should not eat. 8×1

    b. Give six factors that causes increased unemployment in Kenya today

  • Employing foreigners
  • How economic growth
  • Choosing of work/preference to white collar jobs
  • Insufficient funds to start busines
  • Inadequate land for agriculture
  • Corruption
  • Poor job distribution 6×1

    c. How does the church help to reduce the rate of unemployment in Kenya

  • The church encourage people to start income generating projects/activities
  • Church provides loan to the unemployed
  • Church establishes projects
  • Church teaches the youths about the dignity of manual work
  • Church organized seminars for the youth
  • Church condemned corrupt practices which interferes with recruitments
  • Church trains the youths on vocational skills 6×1 6.a. Explain how unfair distribution of wealth can lead to social disorder in Kenya today.

  • Causes anger
  • Encourage widening of gap
  • Encourages grabbing of land
  • Ethnic clashes because of inequitable distribution of landCreates discontentment among people
  • Violence/murder occur
  • Lead to strike
  • Lead to strained relationship between government and people 6×1

    b. Give reasons why Christians should not involve themselves in gambling

  • One gets money without working for it
  • Leads to person losing
  • Creates bitterness in one who looses
  • Bible condemn gambling
  • No security on wealth
  • It is addictive
  • Interfere with family budget causing misunderstanding in the family
  • Lead to violence
  • Lead to stress
  • Led to poverty 7×1

    c. How is corruption affecting the society in Kenya today?

  • There is increase in crime
  • The public has lost trust in government
  • There is increase in poverty
  • There is high level of inflation
  • Lack of quality services
  • Has resulted to low morale of workers
  • It gives a country a negative image globally. 7×1

    Business Studies Paper 1 Questions and Answers - 2019 K.C.S.E

    Prediction Set 1

    1.Physical resources

  • Buildings
  • Motor vehicles
  • Machines
  • Furnitures
  • Equipment

    2.Importance of entrepreneurship in a country

  • Creates employment
  • Promotes innovation and creativity
  • Enhance utilisation of available resources
  • Generates personal/national income
  • Creation of a varirty of goods
  • promote new technology
  • Enhances development of enterprising culture in the country
  • Enables formation of capital/wealth

    3.Personal attributes of a secretary

  • Good personal grooming
  • High standards of health
  • Should manintain an upright and energetic posture proper walking styles/sitting styles
  • Should be orderly in the he/she performs and organises his or her work

    4.Circumstances under which a credit note is issued

  • When invoice is overcharged
  • When goods are returned due to damage
  • When goods not supplied are charged for
  • Where goods not ordered for are returned
  • Where the buyer returns empty packing containers for which he had charged
  • Where a deserving discount is not allowed in the invoice

    5.Challenges facing cooperative societies

  • Withdrawal of members causing financial strains to the society
  • Smiall contribution by members leading to financial difficulties
  • Does not attract high quality staff because of low pay
  • Members are not well informed hence do not take part in the affairs of the society
  • Manangement committee ar en ot qualified
  • Suffer from unnecessary polituical interfererence
  • Slow decision making procvess
  • They are flexible
  • May suffer from mismanagement/embezzlement of funds

    6.Benefits of containeristaion

  • Carry large quantities
  • Minimal damage to goods
  • Goods are safe from theft and pilferage
  • Low insurance premiums
  • Ease of loading and offloading due to use of handling equipment
  • Minimal handling cost due use of modern technology
  • Containers are fitted with appropriate handling services
  • Possible to transport speciliased goods using specially designed containers

    7.Advantages of E-mail

  • Relatively cheap
  • Relatively fast
  • It is confidential
  • Instant feedback
  • User can access other information such as advertising
  • It is relatively easy to retrieve information
  • It is universal
  • Detailed information can be sent
  • The information can be used for futur reference

    8.Factors that may limit the effectiveness of a warehouse

  • Inadequate premises to accommodate goods
  • Poor/ionadequate handling equipment/machines
  • Incovenient location to users
  • Lack of special facilities to cater for special goods
  • Unqualified and incompetent staff
  • Poor security
  • Non competitive with legal requiremnt
  • Poor inventory control

    9.Movement along a supply curve and shift of supply curve

    Movement Shift
    Only one supply curve involved Involves two supply curves
    Caused by change in the price of a commodty Caused by other factors besides the prices
    Is the quantity supplies that changes It is the supply that changes
    A different quantity is supplied only at a
    different price
    A differnt quantity is supplied at the same price
    as before
    Can be traced up and dpwn the smae curve Cause the entire supply curve to move either to
    the left or to the right
    10.Effects of production activities on the envrionment

  • Depletion of productive resources
  • Degradation of the environment
  • Pollution of air/water
  • Rise in crime and anti-social activities
  • Diverse effects on the ozone layer
  • Disease and poor health caused by hadnling of chemicals
  • Psychological diseases e.g. stress
  • Noise poluution causing hearing problems

    11.Monopoly vs monopolistic competition

    Monopoly Monopolistic
    Exists only one single seller Exists more than one firm/seller
    No close substitutes Products are differentiated
    Exercises full control of the market No single firm controls a significant proportion of
    the total market
    The firm is the price giver/setter A firm must exercise some caution before
    changing the price
    Demand curve steeply slopes from left to right The demand curve slopes gently from left to
    right
    12.Factors that influences the choice of distribution channels

  • Nature of the product
  • Location of the market
  • Cost of the channel
  • Governemet policy
  • The size of the market
  • Nature of competition
  • Need for after ssale service
  • Amount of capital/finances
  • Volume of goods produced
  • Financial ability of the consumers

    13.Limitations of using National income statistics to measure standard of living

  • Data being used may not be accurate
  • National income figures does not reflect the distribution of income
  • Consumption patterns and lifestyles are not constant
  • It may not show the proportion of income spent on productive or on productive activities
  • A high income could be at the expenes of citizens social welfare
  • Figures may not reflect depreciation/appreciation assets

    14.State the efecct of each of the follwoing transactions on a balance sheet total. Use increase,decrease and No effect (4 mark)

    a.Increase

    b.Decrease

    c.No effect

    d.Decrease

    15.The following information was extracted from Kariuki Enterprise for the month ended 31st Augsut 2015

    Gross profits 24000

    Total expenses 80000

    Total revenue income 10% of sales

    Mark up percentage 25%

    Prepare a profit and loss Account for the months (4 mark)

    16. Factors of demand for money

  • Level of individual income
  • Price level/inflation
  • Interest rate
  • Availability of credit facilities
  • Individual's style of life/spending habit 17.Features of economic resources

  • They are scarce/limited
  • Have monetary value
  • Unevenly distributed
  • Can be combined
  • Have utility/usefulness
  • Can be tranferred form one person to another

    18.Disadvantages of division of labor

  • Lead to monotony resulting to boredom
  • Hinders creativity
  • Makes a worker dependant on one trade
  • Encourage the use of machines which may lead to unemployment
  • May make a country dependent on other countries
  • Bring people together and this lead to social problem
  • Lack of pride in the final product
  • If a few people stop working the whople production process stops

    19.Advantages of government involvement in business activities

  • Provison of essential goos/services
  • Provison of large capital invetsment
  • Protection of citizens from exploitation
  • Stimulation of economic development
  • Create employment
  • To generate government reveneue
  • Stabilistaion of the ecnomy
  • Promotre equity in distribution of resources
  • Control use of resources
  • Maintenance of law and order
  • Promotion of best practices
  • Reduce foreign dominance
  • Promotion of entrepreneural culture
  • Promote investment in the country

    20. Re-insurance circumstance

  • When the value of the property it has insured is high
  • When the chance of the risk occuring is very high
  • When an insurance company has covered many risks
  • Incase there is need for insurance comapny to spread the risk
  • When the government policy makes it mandatory

    21.i.Competitive advertising

    Advertising which is aimed at convincing a customer to prefer a particular product

    ii.Celebrity Advertising

    Advertising where a famous person is used to endorse a product by identifying with it e.g Nameless(muscles) yego etc

    22.The diagram below shows the relationship between population trend and income per head

    i.Income per head/per capita income

    ii.Optimum population

    iii.Under population

    iv.Over population

    23.Give in statement from the business transactions in the accounts below (4 marks)

    Jan 1: Business started with cash sh. 100000 as capital

    2: Deposited cash from cash till o to the business account sh. 50,000

    jan 8: Purchased stationery sh 10,000 and paid in cash

    10: Purchased stationery worth shs. 4,000 and paid by cheque

    24.In the spaces provided state the source document for each of the books of original entry (4 mark)

               Book of original entry                 Source document            
    i.Cash receipt Journal
    ii. Return inwards Journal
    iii. Purchases Journal
    iv. Sales Journal
    Demand curve steeply slopes from left to right                                                                                       
    25.The cost of consumer goods and services for a representative basket of an average family is given

    below

    i.Cash receipt

    i.Outgoing credit note

    iii.Incoming invoice/purchases invoice

    iv.Outgoing invoice/sales invoice

    Business Studies Paper 2 Questions and Answers - 2019 K.C.S.E

    Prediction Set 1

    1.a.Importance of trade within a country.

  • Enables consumers to ge a wide varity range of goods and services to satisfy different tastes/preferences
  • Creates a link between producers and consumers
  • Promotes peace and harmony among trading partner thro' interaction among traders
  • Provide employment thus raising citizens standards of living
  • Encourages specialisation since producers sell what they produce and buy what they do not produce
  • Facilitates tranfer of technology/skills which enhance wuality goods/services
  • Encourage full utilization of available resources by provifing market/demand for raw materials
  • Promotes entrepreneural culture where succesful entrepreneurs acts as role model Widens market for goods/services where surplus is sold

    b.Differences between a cooperative sociuety and a public company

    Cooperative society Public company
    Members welfare motivated Profit motivated
    Serves members only Serves the general public
    Minimum of 10 adults Minimum of 7 shareholders
    One man one vote One share carries one vote
    Co-operates with other cooperatives Compete with other companies
    Governed by cooperative act Governed by company act
    Has one class of shares Has several types of shares
    Share not freely transferable Share are freely transferable
    2.a.On 1st December 2015, Mumbi traders had shs. 125,000 in hand and a a bank overdraft of shs 97,000

    During the month, the following transactions took place

    Dec 2: Cash sale banked shs. 335,260

    3: Bought goods in cash shs. 10,500

    9: Paid Njeru a creditor shs. 190,000 by cheque in full settlement of his account after deducting 5% cash discount

    13: Received a cheque for sh. 158,400 from Maro after allowing her a cash discount of shs. 1,600

    16: Paid salaries shs. 36,000 in cash

    24: Withdrew shs. 100,000 from bank for office use

    29: Nyangau, a debtor paid her account of 175,000 by cheque less 10% cash discount

    31: Deposited all the cash into bank except shs. 33,490

    Required: Prepare a three column cash book and balance it off (10 marks)

    b. Purpose of public finance

  • To influence distribution of income in order to reduce regional imbalance in the country
  • To stimulate economic development in the economy by intiating a major invetment/construcution of major development projects
  • To regulate economic activities in the country by checking consumption of some goods/control monoply
  • To raise public revenue levied through taxes to finace government expenditure
  • Enhance good governmance/accountability/transparency
  • To maintain economic stability in the country by checking inflation levels/unemployment/b.o.p deficits
  • To control/regulate/encourage particular sectors of the strategic/social/economic e.g agriculture/health/education etc
  • Market intervention so as to guide regulate and sometimes control the activities of the private sector
  • Establish finanacial policies on subsidies ensure government security/law/order

    3.a.Reasons for which business should observe ethics practices

  • To ensure fair competition - by ensuring fair play as business compte with each other/by not discrediting competitor product/damaging competition promotional materials
  • To protect consumer from exploitation/overcharging/false advertising/poor quality of goods and services
  • To protect the environment degradtation/pollutants
  • To protect the rights if employees by paying them fairly/intervene/not violating their rights
  • To promote social responsibility by enhancing a good relationship with the community/giving back to the socity
  • To abide by the country's laws to avoid law suits/conflicts/friction with law enforcing agencies
  • To mainatain suppliers - by paying them in time
  • To promote positive culturall practices by not using offensive appeals that go against their cultural values
  • To avoid discrimination in business by giving equal opportunities to all

    b.Factors that contribute to income disparity in Kenya

  • Corruption/outright stealing of country's resources
  • Disparity in access to education
  • Differences in individual/personal talent endowments
  • Some people being politically advantaged over others
  • Nepotism in securing good job opportunities
  • Some people being involved in violent robbery
  • Inheritance, some people had a lot to inheirt from their parents while others did not have anything
  • The poor are always victims of the various cycle of poverty
  • Disparity in natural resources endowmnet

    4.a.Circumstances under which a manufacturer would prefer to sell his products direct to the consumer

  • If goods are highly perishable
  • To enable him to provide after slaes services to buyers
  • To maximise profit
  • To ensure consumers get goods at the right price
  • If he has his own retail outlet
  • Incase of very sensitive items such as arms
  • Incase of sale by tender
  • Incase of small items e.g. small scale dairy farmer selling milk to neighbour

    b.Need for development planning

  • Ensure proper allocation of resources to avoid wastage/avoid duplication
  • Act as a basis for attracting foreign aid and investment as it convinces them to finance/funding from donors
  • To coordinating/controllling/communicating-used for structruing/implementatiin of the function
  • To help in evaluating the performance to help make necessary adjustments/to determine whether the country is achievingg its goals/objectives
  • It is a motivational tool, it inspires citizens to work hard/creates positive attitude towards work
  • Framework/roadmap which give direction in decision making/assist in management
  • Adoptability tool - give room for any changes/uncertainty

    5.a.Explain five advantages of free trade

  • Enjoys quality of goods and services- due to increased competition
  • Countries tend to specialise in what they can produce best
  • Consumers are able to access a wide variety of goods/services to choose from
  • Leads to creation of a wider market where countries can sell their surplus
  • Free movement of factors of production from one country to another
  • Creates investment opportunities in different countries
  • Free flow of technology/skills/idea among different countries
  • Enjoy cheaper goods/services due to competition
  • Promotes peace/understanding among countries through interaction of their citizens

    b.Need for consumer protection

  • To protect tyhem against sale of poor quality goods and services
  • To protect them against sale of goods and services under unhygienic conditons and environment
  • To protect them against sale of harmful goods and services
  • To protect them against breach of contract
  • To protect them against over pricing of goods and services
  • To protect them against hoarding of goods and services which may create artificial shortage
  • Protect them against cheating through misleading or false advertisements
  • Protect them against sale of underweight goods and inadequate services
  • Protect them against sale of socially unacceptable goods and services
  • Protect them against danger that arise due to contamination of the environment
  • Protect them against sale of illegal goods and services
  • Protect them from dangers that may arise from the use of unsafe buildings

    6.a. The following information ws extracted from the books of Sahara traders fro the year ended 30th April, 2013

    Shs.
    Sales 480000
    Opening stock 1/5/2012 80,000
    Opening stock 30/4/2012 120,000
    Gross profit margin 25%

    b.Cause of population decline

  • Government policy encouraging small families
  • High costs of living
  • High infant mortality
  • Strict immigration rules
  • Hunger/deteriorated diet
  • Change of attitude favouring small families
  • Calamities e.g wars/epidemics
  • Poor health facilities
  • Decrease in fertility rate/birth rate
  • Adaptation of family planning programs
  • Increase in employment for women leading to delayed marriage
  • political instability

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