Section A (25 Marks)
Answer all the questions in this section
1. Draw a section of the main scale and full Vernier scale that would give a reading of 3.07 cm (1 mark)
2. Figure 1 shows a burette partly filled with a liquid. The liquid was initially at the level shown.
If the 400 drops of the liquid each volume 0.015cm³ was removed from the burette, mark the new level of liquid in the burette (1 mark)
The temperature of the resulting mixture is 34oC. Determine the specific heat capacity of the metal block. (Take the specific heat capacity of water as 4,200 J/kgK) (3 marks)
4. An object is placed on water and it floats. Write an equation connecting all the forces acting on the body. (1 mark)
5. Figure 2 shows a 150 g mass tied on a string and whirled in a vertical circle of radius 30 cm with a uniform speed.
At the lowest position of the circle the tension is 9.5 N. Calculate the speed v of the mass(3 marks)
b. On the axes provided, sketch the graphs of systems A and B assuming that the springs obey Hooke's law
c. Determine the value K if the extension in system B was 25 cm (2 marks)
7. A piece of paper is wrapped round the joint of a rod partly made of iron and partly wood so that some of the paper is over the iron rod and the other part over the wooden rod as shown in Figure 4
Explain this observation made (2 marks)
8. A meter rule of mass 50 g is balanced by masses 35 g and 15 g suspened from its ends. Find the position of its pivot from 25g mass (3 marks)
Figure 5 shows a bunsen burner which is used for heating substances in a laboratory. Use the information given to answer Questions 9 and 10 below
9. Explain the principle of worklikng of a bunsnen burner (2 marks)
10. Give a reason why the Bunsen burbner in the Figure 5 has a wide base (1 mark)
11. Water rises up in capillary tubes but mercury which is also liquid, falls in capillary tubes to a level below the outside surafce as shown in Figure 6.
Explain this observation. (2 marks)
SECTION B (55 Marks) Answer all the questions in this section
13. a. Figure 7 shows a car braking system. The brake fluid is an oily liquid
ii. State one property of the brake fluid used in this system (1 mark)
iii. The cross-sectioanl area of the master piston is 5.0cm2 . A force of 1540 N is applied to the master psiton.
Calculate the force exerted on each slave piston by the brake fluid given that the cross-sectional area of each slave psiton is 7.2 cm2(3 marks)
b. A diver is 15 m below the surface of water in a dam as shown in Figure 8
i. The total pressure acting on the diver given that the atmospheric pressure at this place is 1.0 × 105 N/m2 (3 marks)
ii. Dam walls are made wider at the bottom than at the top. Explain (1 mark)
c. Water in a measuring cylinder is placed in a refrigerator and allowed to cool from about 15oC to 0oC.
Assuming the water does not freeze, sketch on the axes provided the graph of Volume of water against temperature (1 mark)
b. A particle P tied to a string is moving in a horizontal circle about O as shown in Figure 11. Particle P moves with a constant speed v
ii. Use an arrow to indicate the direction in which the net force F acting on P will act (1 mark)
iii. Give a reason why particle P above experiences centripetal acceleration even thopugh it is moving with a constant speed v (1 mark)
c. Figure 12 shows two masses 0.2 kg and 0.4 kg connected by a string through a hole on a smooth horizontal surface
d. A jet starts from rest with a uniform acceleartion of 500 m/s2 . how long does it take to cover a distance of 40 km? (3 marks)
15. a. A horizontal force of 50 N is applied on a wooden block of mass 2.5 kg placed on a horizontal surface.
Given that the coefficient of kinetic friction between the surface and the block is 0.5, determine the acceleration of the block (3 marks)
b. Figure 13 shows a graph of velocity aginst time for a ball bearing released at the surface of a viscous liquid
I. AB (1 mark)
II. BC (1 mark)
ii. Indicate on the graph the terminal velcoty Vt of the ball bearing (1 mark)
c. Figure 14 shows a pulley system being used to lift a load of 150 N by applying an effort of 60N
ii. Calculate the efficiency of the pulley system (4 marks)
d. Show that the velocity ratio of a wheel and axle machine whose cross-section is shown in Figure 15 is given by V.R. =R /r where R is the radius of the wheel while r is the radius of the axle (2 marks)
b. A metal bar of mass 30 g and specific heat capacity 880 J/kgK is placed in a small furnace. Figure 16 shows how the teperature of the metal bar varies with time t in seconds
ii. Calculate the energy supplied to the bar between t = 0s and 600s (3 marks)
iii. Between t = 600s and 1000s the furnace supplies 30 joules of energy per secodn to the bar.
Calculate the specific latent heat of fusion oof the metal bar (3 marks)
17. a. State Archimedes' principle (1 mark)
b. The system in Figure 17 below is in equilibrium
ii. Calculate the apparent loss of weight of the metal block N given the dimensions of the block are 2cm × 2cm × 6cm (3 marks)
iii. Determine the apparent weight of the metal block N (2 marks)
iv. How far is the metal block N from the pivot? (2 marks)
SECTION A (25 Marks)
Answer all the questions in this section
1. Figure 1 shows a plane mirror, a point object (P) and the position of the observer's eye. Show whether the observer will see the image of the object point P or not. (1 mark)
3. A form one student at Elimu Girls' High School connected a simple electric circuit as shown in Figure 2 below.
Figure 3 shows an X - ray tube used to produce X - rays. Use it to answer questions 4 and 5
a. The metal target is made to rotate (1 mark)
b. Lead metal is used to shield the X-ray tube (1 mark)
5. The X-ray tube in Figure 3 produces elctrons which are accelerated by a p.d of 12 kV. Assuming all the enrgy goes to produce X- rays, determine the maximum frequency of the X-rays produced. (Planck's constant h= 6.62 × 10-34 Js) and charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C) (3 marks)
6. Figure 4(not drawn to scale) shows a bright electric bulb placed behind a screen which has a hole with an object cross-wire. A concave mirror of focal length 30 cm is placed in front of the screen.
The position of the mirror is adjusted until a sharp image of the cross-wire is formed on the screen Detrmine the distance between the mirror and the screen (1 mark)
7. In a house, there is a cooker rated 6 kW. The mains potential is 240 V and the fuses available are 35A, 30 A, 15 A and 13 A. Determine the fuse that would be suitable for the cooker (3 marks)
8. When X- rays are passed above the cap of a positively charged electroscope it is observed that the leaf divergence decreases. Explain this observation (2 marks)
9. Several 200 Ω carbon resistors are to be connected in a circuit so that a current of 2A flows from a 50 V source. Determine how many resistors are required. (3 marks)
10. Figure 5 shows part of a wiring circuit for a house Correct two faults made in the wiring (2 marks)
12. Figure 6 shows an electromagnetic spectrum in the increasing order of wavelength from X to Y
b. Give one similarity between the spectrum labeled B and the visible light (1 mark)
13. Give a reason why electrical power is transmitted over long distances at high voltage (1 mark)
SECTION B (55 Marks) Answer all the questions in this section
14. a. State what is meant by thermionic emission (1 mark)
b. Figure 7 shows a beam of cathode rays entering the space between two charged metal plates.
Continue the dotted line to show the path of the cathode rays as they travel between the plates and into the space beyond the plates (1 mark)
ii. What property does the part labeled B have for its efficient functioning (1 mark)
iii. State the function of the part labeled C (1 mark)
d. The figure below shows the trace on the screen of an ac signal connected to the Y plates of a CRO with time base on Given that the time base control is 50 ms/div, determine the frequency of the a.c signal (3 marks)
ii. Indicate on the diagram the direction in which the card moves as the waves pass on it (1 mark)
b. Figure 10 shows a ray of light travelling from water towards its interface with air. The critical angle, C of water is 49o
II. An angle of incidence θ >C. Label the ray as R2 (1 mark)
ii. Calculate the absolute refractive index, n, of water (3 marks)
c. A student struck the prongs of a tuning fork agaisnt a hard surface in the laboratory. The prongs vibrate producing a longitudinal wave passing through air as shown in the Figure 11
ii. Using a lline with a double arrow, indicate on the diagram a distance d equal to one wavelength of the wave (1 mark)
iii. On the diagram, show with an arrow the direction of motion of the air particle P as the waves pass (1 mark)
d. State one advantage of optical fibre cable over conventional copper cables as used in telecommunication (1 mark)
16. a. Figure 12 shows ammeters and resistors connected to a battery of em.f. 15.0 V and negligible internal resistance
ii. If the resistance R1 is 1.2 Ω , determine as shown in figure 1 the values of R2 b. Figure 13 shows two charged plates P and Q one is earthed and the other is connected using a copper wire to the cap of an elctroscope which was initially unchanged.
c. Figure 14 shows a circuit where a battery of emf 4.5 V, switches A and B, two capacitors C1 = 0.4 μF and C2 = 0.6 μF and a voltmeter are connected.
i. Switch A is closed and switch B is open (1 mark)
ii. Switch A is closed and opened, and then B is closed (3 marks)
d. Figure 15 shows a conductor C placed on a negatively charged polythene rod. Identify the charges on conducto C and sphere S when C is connected to S using a wire
Conductor C (1 mark)
Sphere S (1 mark)
17.a. Figure 16 below shows a steel bolt being magnetized Identify the pole P and Q of the resulting magnet
ii. Given the direction of rotation of the coil is as shown in the diragram, indicate the poles of the magnet on the diagram
iii. If the battery was replaced with a copper wire, sketch on the axes below a graph of induced current against time flowing through the variable resitors if the coil is made to rotate as it is in the figure above (1 mark)
iv. Suggest an improvement that can be made to increase the magbitude of induced current in (iii) above
c. The input voltage of a transformer is 220 V and its output voltage is 12 V.
When a 60 W bulb is connectd across the secondary coil, the current in the primary coil is 0.32 A.
Determine the efficiency of the transformer (3 marks)
d. One of the causes of energy loss in a tranformer is through fromation of eddy currents. State one way in which eddy currents lead to energy loss in a transformer (1 mark)
e. Figure 18 shows a connection to a three pin plug i. Identify the leads labelled B and C (2 marks)
ii. Give a reason why the pin onto which lead A is connected is normlly longer than the other two pins (1 mark)
18. a. Figure 19 shows a human eye with a defect
ii. State one possible cause of this defect (1 mark)
b. A lens forms an image that is four times the size of the object on a screen. If the distance between the object and the screen is 150 cm, determine;
i. State with reasons what type of lens was used (2 marks)
ii. The focal length of the lens (3 marks)
c. A barber holds a concave mirror a short distance from his client's face. Given that the described arrangement is as shown on Figure 20 and the radius of curvature is 40 cm
ii. Use the ray diagram to determine the magnification of the image (1 mark)
Question 1
You are provided with the following apparatus
b. Given that W = 1.429 M, where W is the weight of one tack, determine the value of W (1 mark)
c. i. Fix the half meter rule vertically agaisnt the measuring cyliner using rubber band with the zero mark of the half meter rule at the bottom of the measuring cylinder
ii. Measure 150ml of water using the beaker and pour it into the measuring cylinder.
iii. Roll the plasticine into a spherical ball and push one ened of the straw into the plasticine to block one end
iv. Insert the drinking straw with the plasticine into the mesuring cylinder such that it floast vertically
v. Remove the straw and fix the white label at 4 cm above the plasticine so that the line at the centre runs horizontally. Ensure the line is submerged under the water as shown below
Record the position of the horizontal line as indicated on the half meter rule Lo = ..........................................cm (1 mark)
vi. vii. Also record this value in the table as L when there is no shoe tack in the straw. Insert one shoe tack into the straw and record the new level L of the horizontal line in the table. Repeat the procedure for each number of shoe tacks indicated while recording the level each time.
f. Given the upthrust U of one shoe tack is given as U = 4πS/10000, determine the value of U (2 marks)
g. Determine the apparent weight of one shoe tack (2 marks)
Question 2
You are provided with the follwoing
provided
D...................................(m) (1 mark)
b. Setup the following circuit
i. Record the voltmeter reading when the switch is open
E=.............................................. V (1 mark)
ii. Close the switch and record the voltmeter and ameter readings V and I V=...............................................V (1 mark)
I=................................................A (1 mark)
iii. Now connect the voltmeter across the carbon resistor X and record voltmeter reading V1 V1=...............................................V (1 mark)
iv. Compare the values of V and V1 giving a reason why they are different (2 marks)
v. Calculate X1 given that X1 =V1/I
vi. Calculate the inetrnal resistance r of the cell given that r = (E−V)/I (2 marks)
vii. Calculate X2, given that E = I(X2+r)
viii. Calculate X the average values of X2 and X1
c. Connect anothe circuit as shown below
ii. Obtain the value of the unknown resistance R given that R /X =L1/L2
Interchange the positions of R and X and repeat the procedure in i above and acalculate the value of R using similar argument
L1......................................L2.............................................(1 mark)
d. i. Calculate the average values of R (2 marks)
ii. Given that, R= 35S/100πD² (2 marks)
Section I (50 marks)
Answer all the questions in this section
1. Use logarithms to evaluate (4 marks)
log 0.0430/22.43 + 13.67
2. Solve for x in the equation given below (3 marks)
9
4. Simplify completely without using mathematical tables or calculator (3 marks)
6. Given that the log 2 = 0.30103 and log 7 = 0.84510, find without using mathematical tables or
calculator, log 9.8 (3 marks)
7. Given that 3x − y = 17, find the value of y2
+ 9x2
− 6xy − 9 (2 marks)
8. The center of a circle is C (6,7). A tangent to the circle passes through the point P (8,3) lying on the
circle. Find the eqaution of the tangent (4 marks)
9. Coffee grade 1 at sh 30 per 50 g is blended with coffe grade 2 at sh 20 per 25g and the mixture is
sold at sh 96 per 100g at a profit of 22%. Calculate the ratio in which the two brands of coffee were
mixed. (4 marks)
10. In the figure below, O is the centre of the circle which passes through thepoints C, T and D. CT is
parallel to OD and line ATB is tangent to the circle at T. If the angle BTC is 44°, find the size of angle TOD. (3 marks)
12. The figure below shows part of a circle. AB = 12 cm and CD= 6 cm. AC = CB. Calculate the shaded area. (4 marks)
14. Write down the inequalities that describe the set of points in the unshaded region P. (3 marks)
16. A line segment AB is shown below. Construct a triangle CBA = 30°
. Hence use the constructed line
AC to find a point T such that B divides At in the ratio 5: −2 (3 marks)
Answer Five questions only from this section
17. A cylindrical tank is to be constructed. A model of the tank is made such that it is similar to the
actual tank. The curved surface area of the model is 2160 cm² and that of the proposed tank is
135m2
a. Given that the length of the model is 6cm, calculate the height of the tank in metres. (3
marks)
b. Caculate the volume of the model given that the diameter of the actual tank is 14 m. (3
marks)
c. Determine the volume of the actual tank in m3
(2 marks)
d. The actual tank is used to store some liquids whose density is 0.82 g/cm3
. If the tank is half
full, determine the mass of the liquid in kg. (2 marks)
18.
a. A bus travelling at 99km/hr passes a check point at 10.00 a.m and a matatu travelling at
132 km/h in the same direction passes through the check point at 10:15 a.m. If the bus and
the matatu continue at their uniform speeds, find the time the matatu will overtake the
bus. (6 marks)
b. Two passenger trains A and B which are 240 m apart and travelling in opposite directiosn
at 164 km/h and 88km/h respectively approach one another on a straight railway line. Train
A is 150 metres long and train B is 100 metres long. Determine time in seconds that
elapses before the two trains completely pass each other. (4 marks)
19.
a. On the grid provided, draw the garph of the function y = x²+x+9 for -3
c. Assuming that the area determined by inetgration to be the actual area, caluate the
percentage error in using the mid-ordinate rule. (2 marks)
20. On the graph paper provided plots the points P (2,2) Q (2,5) and R(4,4).
a. Join them to form a triangle PQR (1 mark)
b. Reflect the triangle PQR in the line X = 0 and label the image P'Q'R'. (2 marks)
c. Triangle PQR is given a translation by vector T(2
2) to P"Q"R". Plot the triangle P"Q"R". (3 marks)
d. Rotate triangle P"Q"R" about the origin through −90o
. State the coordinates of P'''Q'''R'''. (3 marks)
e. Identify two pair of triangles that are direct congruence (1 mark)
21. Three warshisps P,Q,R are at sea such that ship Q is 400 km on a bearing of 030o
from ship P. Ship
R is 750 km from ship Q and on a bearing of S60oE from ship Q. Ship Q is 100km and to the north
of an emeny warship S.
a. Taking a scale of 1 cm to represent 100 km, locate the position of ships P,Q,R and S. (4
marks)
b. Find the compass bearing of:
i. Ship P from ship S (1 mark)
ii. Ship S from ship R (1 mark)
c. Use the scale drawing to determine
i. The distance of S from P (1 mark)
ii. The distance of R from S (1 mark)
d. Find the bearing of
i. Q from R (1 mark)
ii. P from R (1 mark)
22. A certain number of people agreed to contribute equally to buy books worths shs. 1200 for a
school library. Five people pulled out and so the others agreed to contribute an extra sh. 40 each.
Their contribution enabled them to raise the sh. 1200 expected
a. If the original number of people was x, write an expression of how much each was originally
going to contribute (1 mark)
b. Write down the expression of how much each contributed after the five people pulled out.
c. Calculate how many people made the contributions (5 marks)
d. If the prices of books before buying went up in the ratio 5:4, how much extra did each
contributor give. (3 marks)
23. PQRS is a trapezium where PQ is parallel to SR. PR and SQ intersect at X, so that SX = KSQ and PX
= hPR wher k and h are constants. Vectors PQ = 3q and PS = s,SR = q
a. Show this information on a diagram (1 mark)
b. Express vector SQ in terms of s and q (1 mark)
c. Express SX in terms of k, q and s (1 mark)
d. Express SX in terms of h, q and s (1 mark)
e. Obtain h and k (4 marks)
f. In what ratio does X divide SQ? (2 marks)
24. A solid cylinder has a radius of 21cm and a height of 18 cm. A conical hole of radius r is drilled in
the cylinder on one of the end faces. The conical hole is 12 cm deep. If the material removed from the hole is 22
/3% of the volume of the cylinder, find: (Use π = 22/7)
a. The surface area of the hole(5 marks)
b. The radius of a spherical ball made out of the material (3 marks)
c. The surface area of the spherical ball (2 marks)
SECTION I (50 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
1. When asked to find 7/18 of a certain number, Juma found by mistake 7/8 of it. Hence the answer was too large by 105. Find the number. (3 marks)
2. Simplify leaving the answer in the form of a√2 + b√5 where a and b are constants. (3 marks)
3.a. Expand completely (x-0.2)5
(1 mark)
b. Hence use your expansion to find the exact value of (9.8)5
(2 marks)
4. The figure below represents a solid cuboid ABCDEFGH with a rectangular base. AB = 12 cm, BC = 10 cm and CH = 5 cm. M is the midpoint of GH
5. A ball allowed to drop from a height of 16 cm on to a flor rebounds to 3
/4 of its previous height. Find
the total distance the ball wil have travelled when it hits the ground for the tenth time correct to four significant figures. (2 marks)
6. Calculate the standard deviation for the distribution below (4 marks)
Y=MX/X²+F
8. A triangle whose area is 7.2 cm² is mapped onto a triangle whose area is 3.6cm² by the matrix
given below. Find the two possible values of x. (3 marks)
10. Find the amount after 3.25 years if Kshs 234,000 is invested at 10% p.a compunded semi annually.
(3 marks)
11. In the figure below XY and YZ are chords of the circle centre O. XY = 6 cm and XZ = 9 cm.
a. The value of angle XYZ
b. The length of OZ
12. In the figure below PQRS is a rectangle. PQ = 30cm and PS = 10 cm
The unshaded portions are cut off leaving a parallelogram ABCD
13. The figure below is a sketch of the graph of the quadratic function D = k(x-2) (x+1). Find the value of k. (3 marks)
15. The figure below shows a circle passing through the origin cutting through P (K,0) and Q (0,K). If its
radius is 3√2, find the equation of the circle in the form of x2 + y2 +ax + by + c = 0 (4 marks)
SECTION II (50 Marks)
Answer any Five Questions from this Section
17. The table below shows income tax rate for the year 2014
Income in Kshs per month Rate %
Find
i. Gross tax of Kamau (1 mark)
ii. Taxable income per month in shillings (5 marks)
b. Apart from basic salary, Mr. Kamau also earns a house allowance of Ksh 12, 000, a medicall
allowance of Ksh 3,060 and a hardship allowance of Ksh 4,635. Find the his basic salary per
month (2 marks)
c. Other deductions for Kamau include; SACCO loan kshs. 3000, SACCO contributions Ksh.
6,000 and hire purchase repayment Kshs. 2,000. Calculate Kamau's net pay per month (2
marks)
18. Water flows through a cylindrical pipe of diameter 8.4 cm at a speed of 50m/minute.
a. Calculate the volume of water delivered by the pipe per minute in litres. (π=22/7) (3 marks)
b. A cylindrical storage tank of radius 105 cm is filled by water from this pipe at the same rate
of flow. Water begins flowing into the empty storage tank at 9.30 a.m and is full at 2.00
pm. Calculate the height of the tank in metres. (4 marks)
c. A family consumes the capacity of this tank in one month. The cost of water is sh 50 per
thousand litres and fixed basic charge of Ksh 1650 per month. Calculate the cost of this
family's water bill for a year. (3 mks)
19. The position of two towns A and b on earth's surface are (60oN, 36oE) and (60oN, 144oW)
respectively. Taking the radius of the earth as 6370 km and π =22/7
a. Calculate the shortest distance between A and B in km to 1 dp. (2 marks)
b. Calculate the distance between A and B along the parallel of latitudes in km (2 marks)
c. Another town C is 840 km east of twon B and on the same latitude as town A and B. Find
the position of town C. (3 marks)
d. If an aircraft leaves town A at 8.30 am at a speed of 720 km/h to K (60oN,50oW). At what
local time is it expected at K to the nearest minute? (3 marks)
20.
a. In a chemistry form 4 class in Jaribu high school 1
/3 of the class are girls and the rest are
boys. 4
/5 of the boys and 9
/10 of the girls are right handed while the rest are left handed.
The probability that a right handed student breaks a conical flask in any practical session
is 3/10 and the corresponding probability for a left handed student is 4
/10.
i. Represnt the above infomation on a tree diagram (2 marks)
ii. Determine the probability that a student chosen at random from the class is left
handed and does not break a conical flask in its simplest form (2 marks)
iii. Determine the probability that the flask is broken in any practical session in
simplest form (2 marks)
b. The probability of Peter scoring grade A in his exam is 0.6 while the probability of Ali
scoring the same grade is 0.7.
Determine the probability that,
i. Both will score grade A (1 mark)
ii. None of them will score grade A (1 mark)
iii. Only one of them will score grade A (1 mark)
iv. At least one of them will score grade A (1 mark)
21. In the figfure below, O is the centre of the cricle. PQR is a tangent to the circle at Q. Angle PQS =28°, angle UTQ = 54°and UT = TQ
b. Angle TQU (2 marks)
c. Angle TQS (2 marks)
d. Reflex angle UOQ (2 marks)
e. Angle TQR (2 marks)
22.
a. Using a ruler and pair of compasses only, construct a triangle ABC such that AB = 8 cm and
angle ABC = 75°
and angle BCA = 45°
. Let AB be on the line drawn below(3 marks)
b. On the upper side of line AB, Locate the locus of p such that AP = PB and P is equidistant
from AC and AB. (2 marks)
c. Construct the locus of a point T such that angle ATB = 120°
(2 marks)
d. Construct a rectanbgle ABXY on the lower side of AB such that its area is 32 cm2 (2 marks)
e. Shade the region R inside the rectangle suchthat XRY≥90°
and angle ATB≥120°
(1 mark)
23. A farmer wishes to keep some chicks and ducks. Chicks cost Kshs. 60 each while ducks costs Kshs.
80 each. She cannot afford to spend more than Ksh 24,000. She finds it uneconomical to keep less
than 250 birds. She also wishes to keep more chicks than ducks but chicks must be less than 200.
a. Taking x and y to be the number of chicks and ducks resectively, write down all the
inequalities that satisfy the above conditions (3 marks)
b. Represent the inequalities graphically using a sclae of 1 cm represents 50 birds on both
axis (4 marks)
24. The diagram below shows a line PQ and the curve y = 2x − x2
intesrecting at point P and Q
b. Calculate the area of the shaded region
101/1 English
Paper One
Time: 2hrs
Instructions to Candidates
1. Write your details in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer all the questions in this paper.
3. Answer the questions in English
1. Functional Writing
Students in your school have raised concerns about poor hygiene in the school. In a bid to address
these concerns, the principal appoints a four member committee to investigate the health situation
and give recommendations. You are the secretary of the committee, write down the report you will
present to your principal. (20mks)
2. Cloze Test (10mks)
Fill in the blank spaces with the most appropriate words.
A new research title “Underage drinking in Kenya”, has .....................1...................that nearly one
third of form four students aged below 18 years take alcohol .....................2................... As our
society ponders this sad ..................3............................., the urgent message to children who are
taking alcohol ..............................4................ do not drink another sip. Advice to those children is
to strongly say “no”. ..................5.....................irresponsible behaviour, to alcoholism, there are
many..................6..................effects of alcohol. It is wrong and illegal for children to drink alcohol.
This report also states that 46 percent of the children received ..................7................first pint
from friends and .....................8...................... Do you offer alcohol to a child? As a parent or
guardian, do you nurture .....................9................? How much time do you spend with them?
Notably, ...........................10...............of guidance and supervision are stimuli to underage drinking.
3. Oral Skills (30mks)
Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow
Make me a grave where’er you will,
In a lowly plain, or a lofty hill;
Make it among earth’s humblest graves,
But not in a land where men are slaves.
I could not rest if around my grave
I heard the steps of a trembling slave;
His shadow above my silent tomb
Would make it a place of fearful gloom
I could not rest if I heard the tread
Of a coffle going to the shambles led,
And the mother’s shriek of wild despair
Rise like a curse on the trembling air
(by Frances Ellen Watkins Harper)
Questions
a. Describe the rhyme scheme of the poem above. (2mks)
b. Apart from rhyme, mention two other ways they have achieved rhythm? (4mks)
c. Mention two ways in which you would know that your audience is fully participating during
the recitation of the poem above. (2mks)
d. How would you say the last line of the poem? (2mks)
e. Indicate whether the following items have a falling or a rising intonation. (4mks)
i. Get out now!
ii. The man was accused of theft.
iii. How did you find the English exam?
iv. Could he have left?
f. Underline the silent letters in the following words. (4mks)
i. Corps
ii. Parliament
iii. Leopard
iv. Fracas
g. Provide a homophone for each of the following words. (4mks)
i. Bury
ii. Claws
iii. Guest
iv. Male
h. The underlining indicates the stressed word in the sentences below. Briefly explain what
each sentence mean (3mks)
i. The lady in a red dress lost her purse
ii. The lady in a red dress lost her purses
iii. The lady in a red dress lost her purse.
i. Identify the odd word out according to the pronunciation of the underlined sound. (2mks)
i. Said Head Gate Led
ii. Face Phrase Shepherd Phase
j. Below is a dialogue between Muthomi and James who are candidates. Read it and answer
the questions that follow.
Muthomi: James, I’m worried about my performance in English. It’s not encouraging.
James: Ah! I’m happy with mine in Biology. I got an A in the last exam.
Muthomi: I really don’t know what to do about English, maybe...
James: I don’t like History and P.E teacher. He thinks he is the only one who can a pick-up
truck. My mum told me she would be buying one soon.
Muthomi: (Trying to bring him back to the topic) Tell me James, how do you revise
English?
James: Oh! Is that Betty? She promised to bring me a movie. (Calling out) Betty! Betty!
(The runs after her)
i. Identify the shortcomings in the dialogue above (3mks)
Instructions to Candidates
1. Write your details in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer all the questions in this paper.
3. Answer the questions in English.
1. Comprehension
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow
The process of developing social skills among children at an early age is important. Researchers
have cited rejection by peers as the greatest challenge children face in their quest to build
meaningful social skills. It has been reported that children who get bullied and snubbed by peers
are more likely to have problems in relating with others. In recent times, researchers have found at
least three factors in a child’s behaviour that can lead to social rejection. The factors involve a
child’s inability to pick up on and respond to nonverbal cues from their pals. In the United states 10
to 13 percent of school-going children experience some form of rejection by their peers. In addition
to causing mental health problems, bullying and social isolation can increase the likelihood of a
child getting poor grades, dropping out of school,, or developing substance abuse problems.
It is reported that the social skills that children gain on the playground or elsewhere could show up
later in life, according to Richard Lavoie, an expert in child social behaviour. He says that children
experiment with the relationship styles they will have as adults during unstructured playtime-when
children interact without the guidance of an authority figure. Researchers say that the number-
one need of any human is to be liked by other humans. However, researchers have expressed
concern that our children are like strangers in their own land. They don’t understand the basic
rules of social behaviour and their mistakes are usually unintentional.
Children who face rejection may have problems in at least one of three different areas of nonverbal
communication, which is the reason they are rejected. These are reading nonverbal cues;
understanding their social meaning; and coming up with options for resolving a social conflict. A
child, for example, simply my not notice a person’s scowl of impatience or understand what a
tapped foot means. In another situation, a child may have trouble reconciling the desires of a
friend with her own. Anyone trying to help children on their social skills should try to pinpoint the
weaknesses a child has and then build those up.
When children have prolonged struggles with socializing, “a vicious cycle begins,” children who are
shunned by others have few opportunities to practice social skills whereas popular children have
more than enough opportunities to perfect theirs. However, having just one or two friends can be
enough to give a child the social practice he or she need.
Parents, teachers and other adults in a child’s life can help, too. Instead of reacting with anger or
embarrassment to a child who, say, asks Aunt Vera if her new hairdo was a mistake, parents
should teach social skills with the same tone they use for teaching numeracy skills or proper
hygiene.If presented as a learning opportunity, rather than a punishment, children usually
appreciate the lesson. It is important to note that most children are so desperate to have friends
that they just jump on board.
To teach social skills, Lavoie advises a five-step approach in his book. The process works for
children with or without learning disabilities and is best conducted immediately after a wrongdoing
has been made. First, ask the child what happened and listen without judgment. Second, ask the
child to identify their mistake. Often children only know that someone got upset, but don’t
understand their own role in the outcome. Third, help the child identify the cue they missed or
mistake they made, by asking something like: “How would you feel if Emma was hogging the tyre
swing?” Instead of lecturing with the word “should,” offer options the child “could” have taken in
the moment, such as “You could have asked Emma to join you or told her you would give her the
swing after your turn. “Fourth, you can create an imaginary but similar scenario where the child
can make the right choice. For example, you could say, “If you were playing with a shovel in the
sand box and Aiden wanted to use it, what would you do?” Lastly, give the child” social homework”
by asking him to practice this new skill, saying: “Now that you know the importance of sharing, I
want to hear about something you share tomorrow.”
(Adapted from livescience.com-Tue Feb 2, 2010)
Questions
a. In one sentence, explain what this passage is talking about? (2mks)
b. What is the number one need of any human being? (1mk)
c. What are cited as the causes for social rejection according to the passage (2mks)
d. What is social rejection likely to lead to (2mks)
e. What vicious cycle is referred to in this passage (2mks)
f. How can a parent make children appreciate the lesson on social skills? (2mks)
g. “How would you feel if Emma was hogging the tyre swing?” Re-write in reported speech.
(1mk)
h. Make notes on the five-step approach to teach children social skills (5mks)
i. Explain the meanings of the following words and phrases as used in the passage (3mks)
i. Authority figure
ii. Shunned
iii. Jump on board
2. Read the excerpt below and answer the questions that follow (25mks)
A Doll’s House:
Krogstad: (Controlling himself) Listen to me, Mrs. Helmer. If necessary, I am prepared to fight for
my small post in the Bank as if I were fighting for my life.
Nora: So it seems
Krogstad: It is not only for the sake of the money; indeed, that weighs least with me in the matter.
There is another reason-well, I may we well tell you. My position is this. I daresay you know, like
everybody else, that once, many years ago, I was guilty of an indiscretion.
Nora: I think I have heard something of the kind.
Krogstad: The matter never came into court; but every way seemed to be closed to me after that.
So I took to the business that you know of. I had to do something; and, honestly, I don’t think I’ve
been one of the worst. But now I must cut myself free from all that. My sons are growing up; for
their sake I must try and win back as much respect as I can in the town. This post in the Bank was
like the first step up for me – and now your husband is going to kick me downstairs again into the
mud.
Nora: But you must believe me, Mr. Krogstad; it is not in my power to help you at all.
Krogstad: Then it is because you haven’t the will; but I have means to compel you.
Nora: You don’t mean that you will tell my husband that I owe you money?
Krogstad: Hm! – suppose I were to tell him?
Nora: I would be perfectly infamous of you. (Sobbing) To think of his learning my secret, which has
been my joy and pride, in such an ugly, clumsy way – that he should learn it from you! And it would
out me in a horribly disagreeable position-
Krogstad: Only disagreeable?
Nora: (Impetuously) well, do it, then! – and it will be the worse for you. My husband will see for
himself what a blackguard you are, and you certainly won’t keep your post them.
Krogstad: I asked you if it was only a disagreeable scene at home that you were afraid of?
Nora: If my husband does get to know of it, of course he will at once pay you what is still owing,
and we shall have nothing more to do with you.
Krogstad: (Coming a step nearer)Listen to me, MrsHelmwe. Either you have a very bad memory or
you know very little of business. I shall be obliged to remind you of a few details.
Questions
a. What happens just before this excerpt? (2mks)
b. Identify and illustrate any two themes evident in the excerpt. (4mks)
c. Using about fifty words, summarise why Krogstad is prepared to fight for the small post in
the bank (5mks)
d. Identify and illustrate any two character traits of; (4mks)
i. Krogstad
ii. Nora
e. Identify and illustrate any two stylistic devices used in the excerpt. (4mks)
f. Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the extract (2mks)
i. Compel
ii. Blackguard
g. “I shall be obliged to remind you of a few details”. Which are those details? (4mks)
3. Read the following narrative then answer the questions that follow (20mks)
Once upon a time Hare and Hyena were very good friends. They visited each other every day and
herded their cows together.
There came a time when the cows started dying one after the other. The two friends wanted to find
out why the cows were dying. Hare said, ‘Let us go and kill our mothers and take out their livers.
We shall then cook and taste these livers. The bitter liver will show whose mother was making the
cows die. At once Hyena went and killed his mother. He took out the liver and cooked it. Hare went
and hid his mother in the garden in bushy banana plants. He then went and killed an antelope,
took out its liver and cooked it.
The two friends met to eat their livers. “My liver is very bitter”, said the Hyena. “Mine is very
sweet,” said Hare, “So it was your mother who was making the cows die.” Hyena kept quiet and
went home feeling sad. He moved from the old house to a smaller one because now he had no
mother. Hare did the same
After a short time, there was great famine in the land. The two friends decided that each of them
was to look for food on alternate days sharing, on an equal basis what was available. When it was
Hyena’s turn, he went and found only honeycombs without any honey. When Hyenabrought these,
Hare refused this because he had secretly gone to his mother who had given him some bananas.
This went on for many days, and Hyena grew thinner and thinner. Then he started wondering.
“How does my friend remain fat and he doesn’t eat anything. I will find out.”
One day he followed Hare. Hare went to his mother as usual. ‘Mother, mother, I have come’ and
the mother dropped some bananas which Hare ate quickly. He then looked for some honeycombs
and took them to the friend. “This is all I could find my friend.” The Hyena kept quiet. The next day
he went to the banana plant and called. His voice however was very deep and no bananas were
dropped for him.
There was an old hyenawho was staying at the end of the forest and used to give advice to people.
So Hare’s friend went to her and told her his problem. “Go and put your tongue on the path of
black ants,” He was told, “Let them bite your tongue until it hurts. That’s how your voice will be
soft.”
Hyena went and did as he was told. When he went to Hare’s mother his voice was as soft as
Hare’s. “Mother, mother I have come.” And Hare’s mother dropped bananas for his him. Then he
told her to come and greet him. When she came down and saw it was Hyena she screamed but
there was nobody near to help. Hyena killed her immediately.
Hyena went and met Hare as usual saying nothing about Hare’s mother. The following day it was
Hare’s. “Mother, mother I have come.’ And Hare’s mother dropped bananas for his him. Then he
told her to come and greet him. When she came down and saw it was Hyena she screamed but
there was nobody near to help. Hyena killed her immediately.
Hyena went and met Hare as usual saying nothing about Hare’s mother. The following day it was
Hare’s turn. He went to his usual place. “Mother” he called again. He climbed up. There was
nobody. Having seen some blood on the ground, Hare knew what had happened to his mother.
When Hare got back to Hyena’s house, he said nothing. At night, Hare took all cows including
Hyena’s and went away to live in another part of the country. That ended the Hare and Hyena’s
friendship. And that is the end of my story to you.
Questions
a. With illustrations, classify the above narrative (2mks)
b. Identify three features of narratives (3mks)
c. Identify three features in this story that are characteristics of oral narratives (3mks)
d. Briefly explain the character traits of the following (4mks)
i. Hare
ii. Hyena
e. What moral lesson do you learn from this story? (2mks)
f. Identify two socio-economic activities from the community in which the narrative is taken
from. (2mks)
g. You have been selected for a fieldwork research to collect the above item.
i. Briefly explain two ways in which you would collect information on the item. (2mks)
ii. Identify two challenges you might encounter during the field work and state how
you would solve them. (2mks)
h. Then he started wondering “How does my friend remain fat and he doesn’t eat anything. I
will find out”. (Re-write into indirect speech) (1mk)
i. Describe the irony in the fifth paragraph (2mks)
4. Grammer (15mks)
a. Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given (3mks)
i. He will not be given a driving license. He passes the road test (Rewrite as one using
‘unless’)
ii. The woman left the child with a neighbor and went to the market. (Begin: leaving....)
iii. The boys went to play in the field (underline the adverbial)
b. Supply the correct preposition to complete the sentences given. (3mks)
i. Property worth millions of shillings went up .........................flames.
ii. The three boys shared the bread ...................................themselves.
iii. We should strive to live .......................................our means.
c. Use the correct form of the word in brackets to fill in the blank spaces in the sentences below.
(3mks)
i. The audience was offended by the .......................................(sense) of the speaker.
ii. The ...............................................(acquire) of a university degree is a great milestone to a
student.
iii. Everyone should obey the law ....................................of their position in the society.
d. Use the correct alternative to complete the sentences below (4mks)
i. Teaching ..........................................(practice/practice) is not an easy job for teacher-
trainees.
ii. The prophet’s .....................................(prophesy/prophecy) was misleading to his
audience.
iii. He ...........................................((insured/ensured) his car with Madison.
iv. Mwita ......................................(hanged/hung) the chart on the wall.
e. Write the following sentences in indirect speech (1mk)
“These are juicy mangoes,” Ken said.
f. You do not require to cheat to pass (1mk) (Supply a suitable question tag).
1. Write your details in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer three questions only
3. Questions one and two are compulsory
4. In question three choose only one of the optional texts you have prepared on.
5. Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional text, only the first one to appear will
be marked.
6. Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words.
7. Candidates should check to ascertain that no questions are missing.
1. Imaginative Composition (20mks)
a. Write a composition ending with the following statement.Imaginative Composition (20mks)
......a final look at her made me realize that choices have consequences.
OR
Write a composition to illustrate the proverb, “once beaten twice shy”.
2. Compulsory Text Blossoms of the Savannah H.R Ole Kulet (20MKS)
Parenting should build an environment of trust and peace in a family. Write an essay that explores
how this statement applies to the Ole Kaelo family in Blossoms of the Savannah.
3. Optional Set Books
a. Drama: David Mulwa: The Inheritance
Inheriting a top seat without merit only invites ridicule from subjects. Write an essay
showing how satire has been used in The Inheritance by David Mulwa.
b. Short stories: Moran (ED) memories we lost.
Discuss the major issues highlighted by the writer in the story window seat by Benjamin
Branoff.
c. John Steinbeck. The Pearl
The Pearl potrays humans as beings inherently greedy. Show the validity of this statement
with reference to The Pearl.
1. Swali la lazima
Nchini Kenya wanachi wamegawanyika katika misingi mbali mbali. Hali hii inatishia usalama na
umoja wa kitaifa. Kama mtaalamu na katibu wa shirika lisilo la kiserikali la Kenya Moja, mwandikie
rais barua ukipendekeza mikakati ya kuimarisha na kudumisha umoja wa kitaifa
2. Utandawazi unaathari nyingi mbaya kuliko nzuri katika maisha yetu. Jadili
3. Siku ya nyani kufa, miti yote huteleza
4. Andika insha ikayamalizikia kwa
Tokea siku hiyo, maisha yangu yakachukua mkondo mpya
1. Ufahamu (Alama 15)
Soma ufhamu kisha ujibu maswali
Mojawapo ya masuala tata yanayokumba taifa letu la Kenya ni zimwi la ufisadi. Ufisadi huu
umekuwa kizingiti kikubwa katika juhudi za serikali katika kuendeleza miradi ya maendeleo kwa
raia wake. Kulingana na utafiti uliofanywa na shirika la Transparency International, Kenya
imeorodheshwa miongoni mwa mataifa fisadi duniani. Utafiti huu umeleta mwamko mpya kwa
serikali, upinzani pamoja na mashirika mengi ya humu nchini na ya kimataifa kupiga darubini suala
hili.
Kwanza, suala la ubepari limeelekezewa lawama. Kuna baadhi ya watu ambao wanatamani
kumiliki ulimwengu mzima, wana utashi wa kupokea mali kwa njia yoyote. Watu kama hawa ndio
wameweka vikwazo na kulazimisha wenzao kutoa kadhongo ili wahudumiwe. Aidha, wafanyakazi
wa serikali wasipolipwa vyema wanaweza kuitikia mpango wa ufisadi ili waeze kujipatia riziki.
Sababu hhi ndio inawafanya baadhi ya polisi kushirikiana na wahalifu. Badala ya kutarajia pingu za
polisi, wanatarajia pambaja baada ya kula mlungula.
Ukosefu wa kazi nchini pia umechangia pakubwa kukuza ufisadi. Vijana barobaro wanazurura ovyo
ovyo huku wakitafuta kazi lakini hawapati kazi wala bazi. Ili wapate kazi wanalazimika kutoa
kadhongo ndipo waajiriwe.
Ufisadi una madhara chungu nzima. Mojawapo wa madhara haya ni kuzorota kwa usalama nchini.
Wahalifu humiliki silaha kinyume cha sheria. Silaha hizi hutumiwa kupora mali na kutekeleza
mauaji. Tatizo hili limepiga dhoruba kali uchumi kwani wawekezaji wa kigeni wamesita kuwekeza
humu nchini.
Eneo jingine ambapo ufisadi hutekelezwa ni katika ukwepaji ushuru. Ni bayana kwamba kulipa
ushuru ni kujitegemea. Serikali hupata hela muhimu za kugharamia huduma kwa wananchi kupitia
ulipaji wa ushuru. Basi ikiwa hela hizi zitapotea kupitia ukwepaji wa ushuru, serikali haitakuwa
katika nafasi ya kutoa huduma kwa wananchi. Huduma hizi ni kama vile afya, nguvu za umeme,
usalama, ujenzi wa barabara na miuondomsingi mingine miongoni mwa huduma nyingine. Aidha,
serikali hushindwa kulipa mishahara ya wafanayikazi wake.
Ufisadi bila shaka umekuwa kidondandugu katika harakati za kuimarisha uchumi. Serikali inafaa
kushutumiwa kwa kutovalia njuga suala hili ambalo linaendelea kuota mizizi kila uchao. Wanachi
hawana budi kushirikiana na taasisi za kukabiliana na ufisadi ili kulizika janga hili katika kaburi la
sahau.
Maswali
a. Taja kichwa mwafaka cha makala haya (alama 2)
b. Eleza kiini cha zimwi linalozungumziwa katika makala haya (alama 4)
c. Thinitisha kwamba ufisadi ni "kidondandugu" (alama 4)
d. Eleza namna uchumi umelamazwa kwakuwepo kwa ufisadi (alam 2)
e. Toa maana ya
i. Utashi
ii. Kadhongo
iii. Kutovalia njuga
2. Ufupisho (Alama 15)
Soma makala yafuatayo kisha ujibu maswali
Wataalamu wa maswala ya kielimu wanadai kuwa huenda nchi hii ikalaumiwa kwa kuendeleza
mfumo wa elimu unaozingatia maslahi ya wakwasi na kuwapuuza wachochole. Mfumo huu wa
elimu umezua mfumo mwingine wa kijamii ambapo watoto wa wenye hadhi wanaapata eleimu
bora kuliko watoto wa maskini. Pengo baina ya haya matabaka linzaidi kupanuka kama ardhi na
mbingu
Watoto kutoka jamii hohehahe wanasomea katika shule za umma zisizo na lolote wala chochote na
watoto wa kifahari wanasomea katika shule za kibinafsi zilizo na vifaa mufti na mazingira faafu.
Mfumo wa jinsi hii ni kuitia jamii kitanzi kwa sababu ya kuzuka kwa matabaka yanayohasimiana
Katika nchi ambapo asilimia sitini ya watu inaishi katika hali ambayo ni chini ya dola moja kila siku,
watoto wengi huenda shuleni bila kula chochote na hushinda hivyo kutwa nzima na wasing'amue
chochote darasani. Walimu wao nao hawana ilhamu au kariha ya kufanya kazi kwa sabau
mazingira ya kikazi ni mabovu na huenda shuleni shingo upande kama wakulima bila pembejeo.
Madarasa yao ni mabanda na wengine husomea chini ya miti ambayo inaweza kukatwa wakati
wowote na wachoma makaa waliokosana na mazingira. Unapowatazama watoto hawa, kile
kinachoitwa sare ya shule kinakirihisha na kuyaudhi macho. Ni matambara yaliyosheheni viraka
vya kila aina katika mseto wa ufakiri. Hawa ni wenzetu eti!
Tatizo hili limekuwa nyeti hasa kutokana na utandawazi wa mfumo wa soko huru ambao
unaruhusu shule za kibinafsi kuendeshwa kama mashirika ya kibiashara. Karo inayolipwa katika
shule hizi ni ya kibiashara, majengo na vifaa ni vya kibishiara, walimu ni wa kibiashara, ilmuradi
kila jambo lalenga maslahi ya kibiashara ya walala hoi. Hapo ndipo chimbuko la makabila mawili
maarufu nchini yaani matajiri walamba vidole na maskini wanaostakimu madongo-kuinama
Uchunguzi umethibitisha kwamba zaidi ya asilimia sitini ya wanafunzi wanaojiunga na shule za
kitaifa hutoka katika shule za kibinafsi zinazomilikiwa na matajtri. Mbinu ya wizara ya Elimu ya
kugawa nafasi kwa njia ya haki katika shule za kitaifa haijafua dafu kwa sababu matajiri wajanja
huwasajili watoto wao kufanyia mitihani katika shule zisizokuwa na ushindani mkubwa zilizomo
mashambani. Kwa kufanya hivyo, watoto wa maskini huwa wamefungiwa njia kotekote na kuporwa
haki yao. Ama kwa kweli, mwenye nguvu mpishe kwani dau la mnyonge haliendi joshi.
Wanafunzi katika shule za binafsi hufunzwa katika makundi madogo amabyo humwezesha
mwalimu kushughulikia mahitaji ya kibinafisi ya kila mtoto. Wazazi wao pia huwaajiri walimu
wakati wa mapumziko ili kugongomeza au kushadidia mada ambazo hawakuzielewa vizuri shuleni.
Upeo wa lugha wa watoto hawa hauwezi kulinganishwa na wa wenzao kwa sababu shule zao zina
maktaba za kisasa, vifaa vya kisasa na vitu meme na hufunzwa teknolojia za kileo kuhsuu
mawasiliano. Watoto hawa huandaliwa ziara za kieleimu ili kutanua uelewa wao wa mambo na vile
vile hualikiwa watu wanoasifika katika jamii kuwahutubia shuleni mwao kuhusu mada mbalimbali.
Wawasilishaji hawa huwa ni kielelezo tosha kwa watoto hawa. Mzazi aliyesoma hujua umuhimu wa
elimu na hivyo basi huandaa mikakati mahsusi ili kumfaulisha mwanawe kinyume na wazazi
wakata.
Ni bayana kuwa iwapo hivi ndivyo mambo yalivyo basi hata vyuo vikuu vitakuwa himaya ya
watoto wa matajiri huku watoto wa kimaskini wakisubiri kuajiriwa nao kama walinzi na matopasi.
Sera za elimu nchini haziwezi fanikiwa pale ambapo rasilimali muhimu zinatengewa watu
wachache katika jamii. Watoto wa waunda sera hizi husomea katika shule ambazo hufuata mifumo
ya kimataifa ambayo haina ukuruba na yetu hafifu. Katika majukwaa ya kisiasa utawasikia wakisifu
mfumo ambao watoto wao wanaukwepa kama ukoma. Imekuja kudhihirika kuwa wale
wanaosemekana kuwa viongozi wa kesho ni wale ambao sasa hivi wansomea katika hizo akademia
na kufuatilia mifumo ya kigeni au akademia zinazofuata mfumo wetu katika mazingira teule. Swali
ni hili, kesho ya mtoto wa kimaskini ni ipi?
Inahitajika mikakati ya kimakusudi ili kulitanzua swala hili kabla ya milipuko ya kijamii kama vile
ujambazi, uuaji, ubakaji, uraibu wa mihadarati na kadhalika kutokea. Ipo lazima ya kujenga shule
vielelezo katika kila gatuzi ambazo zitafadhiliwa na serikali kwa kupewa mahitaji yote muhimu na
lazima mpango wa lishe bora kuanzishwa katika shule za umma ili kukidhi matilaba ya watoto
wote. Udahili wa wanfunzi katika shule za kiatifa na katika vyuo vikuu ni sharti uvalishwe vazi la
utu na uzalendo bila ubaguzi. Shule za umma ziwe na walimu na madarasa ya kutosha ili kuondoa
matatizo yaliyoibuka kutokana na kuanzishwa kwa mpango wa elimu bila malipo katika shule za
msingi. Sera kuhusu shule za chekechea lazima izinduliwe kitaifa ili kusawazisha msingi wa kila
mtoto kielemu. Walimu wa shule hizi za malezi lazima wawe na maadnalizi sawa
yatakayowawezesha kusawazisha viwango kitaalamu. Mitaala yetu ilenge kuzalisha binadamu
ambaye atajinufaisha yeye binafsi na taifa kwa jumla.
Maswali
a. Ni mabo yapi muhimu yanayojitokeza katika aya ya tatu hadi ya saba (maneno 80-85)
(alama 8, 1 utiririko)
Matayarisho.........................................................
............................................................................
Jibu......................................................................
............................................................................
b. Ni mapendekezo yapi yanayotolewa katika aya ya mwisho (maneno 55-65) Alama 7, 1 ya
utiririko)
Matayarisho.........................................................
............................................................................
Jibu......................................................................
............................................................................
3. Matumizi Ya Lugha (Alama 40)
a. Kanusha sentensi ifuatayo:
Nyumba yake ina milango na mapambo mengi (alam 2)
b. Eleza maana nne za sentensi ifuatayo (alama 2)
Alinunuliwa ng'ombe na mtoto wake
c. Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa kutumia mishale (alama 4)
Wanafunzi wasiofuata maagizo watapata alama ambazo zitawaudhi
d. Eleza maana ya semi zifuatazo
i. Ana mkono wa msiba (alama 1)
ii. Pele hupewa msi kucha (alama 1)
e.
i. Eleza maana ya kirai (alama 1)
ii. Tambulisha aina za virai vilivyopigiwa mstari katika sentensi ifuatayo (alama 1)
Wale wasichana watundu walijificha chini ya dawati mwalimu alipowaita
f. Taja aina moja ya sentensi kidhamira na kuitolea mfano mwafaka (alama 1)
g. Andika kifungu kifuatacho katika usemi halisi (alama 4)
Wanafunzi waliambiwa na mwalimu wao kuwa watakaporudi nyumbani waoge, wale halafu
waanze kusoma moja kwa moja badala ya kupoteza wakati wao kutazama vipindi vya
runinga. Aliwasisitizia kuwa waliokuwa wakifanya maonyesho kwenye runinga walikuwa
tayari wamefuzu vyuoni na kuajiriwa kazi
h. Andika sentensi ifuatyo katika udogo umoja (alama 2)
Tulipoyaona yalikuwa yakisoma majitabu
i. Tunga sentensi moja kuonyesha matumizi mawili ya kiambishi -KI- (alama 1)
j. Eleza matumizi ya kiambishi -KU- katika sentensi ifuatayo: (alama 2)
Kucheza huku kulitufurahisha ingawa mgeni hakufurahi
k. Iandike upya sentensi hii kwa kugeuza shamirisho kitondo kuwa kiima (alama 2)
Tunamwandalia mgeni chakula sasa hivi
l. Tunga sentensi mbili ili kubainisha matumizi ya alama ya mshazari (alama 2)
m.
i. Eleza maana ya mofimu (alama 1)
ii. Bainisha mofimu -li- katika utungo huu (alama 2)
Alikimbilia shamba
n.
i. Eleza maana ya shadda (alama 1)
ii. Tia shadda katika neno hili kutoa maana mbili tofauti (alama 2)
Katakata
o. Tofautisha maneno haya kwa kutumia sentensi moja (alama 2)
i. Vuka
ii. Fuka
p. Tumia neno shirika kama nomino na kama kielezi katika sentensi moja (alama 2)
q. Unda nomino moja dhahania kutokana na kitenzi -cha (alama 1)
r. Eleza sifa bainifu zozote mbili za sauti /ch/ (alama 1)
4. Isimu Jamii (Alama 10)
a. Eleza/bainisha ithibati kuwa kiswahili ni lugha ya kibantu (alama 4)
b. Tofautisha istilahi zifuatazo katika Isimu Jamii
i. Uwili lugha na ujozi lugha
ii. Lafudhi na lahaja
iii. Sajili na msimbo
Maagizo
Jibu maswali manne.
Swali la kwanza ni la lazima
Chagua maswali mengine matatu kutoka kwa sehemu zilizosalia:
Riwaya, Tamthilia, Hadithi fupi na Ushairi.
Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
Sehemu Ya A
1. Swali La Lazima
a.
i. Semi nini? (alama 1)
ii. Fafanua sifa nne za misimu (alama 4)
b. Soma wimbo ufuatao kisha ujibu maswali
Ewe kilizi
Ulozowea kujificha
Nyuma ya mama kujikinga, dhidi ya milio
Yanadi ilo juu mbinguni
Jua kesho ni siku ya siku
Siku ya kujua mbivu na mbichi
Kutofautisha jogoo na vipora
Na riba takaposhika, chake kisu
Ndipo utakapojua bayana
Ukoo wetu si wa kunguru
ikiwa hutayari
kisu kukidhihaki
sithubutu kamwe, wanjani kuingia
sije kuniaibisha miye, amiyo na akraba nzima!
Maswali
i. Huu wimbo huitwaje? (alama 1)
ii. Eleza majukumu yoyote manne yanayotekelezwa na wimbo huu katika jamii (alama
4)
c.
i. Mivigha ni nini? (alama 2)
ii. Eleza sifa tatu za mivigha (alama 3)
d. Fafanua matatizo matano ambayo yanaikumba fasihi simulizi duniani (alama 5)
Sehemu Ya B
Riwara: Chozi La Heri: Asumpta Matei
2. “...haifai kucheza na uwezo wavijana, wao ni kama nanga. Huwezi kuzamisha na kuiongea
merikebu.”
a. Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili (alama 4)
b. Bainisha tamathali mbili za usemi zilizotumika katika dondoo (alama 4)
c. Kwa kurejelea riwaya hii, onyesha jinsi vijana wamezamisha merikebu ya wahafidhina.
(alama 12)
3. Baada ya dhiki faraja. Onyesha vile ukweli wa methali hii unavyodhihirika kwenye riwaya. (alama
20)
Sehemu Ya C
Tamthilia: Kigogo: Pauline Kea
4. “Sitaki kuaibishwa na mwanamke mimi, siwezi.”
a. Yaweke maneno haya katika muktadha wake. (alama 4)
b. Fafanua kwa hoja nane kuwa msemaji wa maneno haya anafaa kuaibishwa (alama 16)
5.
a. Jadili jinsi kumi ambazo kwazo maudhui ya ukatili yanajitokeza katika tamthilia ya Kigogo
(alama 10)
b. Eleza mifano mitano ya matumizi ya kinaya katika tamthilia ya Kigogo (alama 10)
Sehemu Ya D : Hadithi Fupi
Tumbo Lisiloshiba Na Hadithi Nyingine
6. Eleza nafasi ya vijana katika jamii ukirejelea hadithi fupi zifuatazo.
a. Mapenzi ya kifaurongo (alama 5)
b. Shogake Dada ana ndevu (alama 5)
c. Mame Bakari (alama 10)
7. Ndoto ya mashaka: Ali Abdalla Ali
“Sasa nimechoka mja. Nimechoka hata naradua kufa kuliko kuishi. Hadi lini haya mashaka ya
kutengenezwa? Mashaka ya mashaka!
a. Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili (alama 4)
b. Tambua mbinu mbili za lugha zilizotumika (alama 4)
c. Fafanua mambo sita yanayomfanya mrejelewa aradue kufa. (alama 12)
Sehemu Ya E: Ushairi
8. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali
Barabaraba do ni ndefu
Nami tayari nimecho katiki
Natama ni kuketi
Ni’nyooshe misuli
Nitulize akili
Lakini
Azma ya nisukuma
Mbele ikinihimiza kuendelea
Baada ya miinuko na kuruba
Sasa naona unyoofu wake
Unyoofu ambao unatisha zaidi
Punde natumbukia katika shimo
Nahitaji siha zaidi ili kupanda tena
Ghafla nakumbuka ilivyosema
Ile sauti zamani kidogo
“Kuwa tayari kupanda na kushuka”.
Ingawa nimechoka
Jambo moja dhahiri
Lazima hufuate barabara
Ingawa machweo yaingia
Nizame na kuibuka
Nipandenakushuka
Jambo moja na kumbuka; Mungu
Je nimwombe tena? Hadi lini?
Labda amechoshwa na ombaomba zangu
Nashangaa tena!
Kitu kimoja na kiamini
Lazima niendelee kujitahidi kwa kila hatua mpya
Nijikokote kuiandama hii barabara yenye ukungu
Nikinaswa na kujinasua
Yumkini nitafika mwisho wake
Ikiwa wangu mwisho haitauwahi kabla.
Maswali
a. Taja naueleze aina ya shairi hili (alama 2)
b. Eleza toni ya shairi hili (alama 2)
c. Huku ukitoa mifano mwafaka eleza tamathali tatu za usemi ambazo zinajitokeza katika
shairi (alama 3)
d. Mshairi ametumia uhuru wake wa utunzi. Eleza mifano mitatu huku ukitolea mifano. (alama
3)
e. Fafanua dhamira ya mtunzi wa shairi hili (alama 2)
f. Andika kifungu cha mwisho katika lugha ya nathari. (alama 4)
g. Eleza maana ya msamiati ufuatao kama ulivyotumika katika shairi (alama 4)
i. Kuruba
ii. Siha
iii. Machweo
iv. Kujinasua
1. The set up below can be used to prepare oxygen gas. Study it and answer the questions that
follow.
b. What property of oxygen makes it possible for it to be collected a shown in the above set
up. ( 1 mk)
c. State two uses of oxygen . ( 1mk)
2. Write an equation to show the effect of heat on each of the following
a. Silver nitrate ( 1mk)
b. An hydrous iron (ii) sulphate ( 1mk)
c. Sodium hydrogen carbonate .( 1mk)
3.
i. What name is given to the process by which alcohol is formed from a carbohydrate.?.
(1mk)
ii. Explain why the solubility of ethane in water is lower than that of ethanol. ( 2mks)
4.i. Complete the nuclear equation below (1mk)
Determine the half life of if 50 grammes decayed for 40 days. ( 1mk)
iii. Give one agricultural use of radio isotope. ( 1mK)
5. Charcoal is a fuel that is commonly used for cooking. When it burns it forms two oxides
a. Name the two oxides . (2mks)
b. State one use of any of the two oxides . (1mk)
6. An element X has a relative atomic mass of 88. When a current of 0.5 amperes was passed
through a fused chloride of X for 32 minutes, 10 seconds; 0.44g of X was deposited.
i. Determine the charge of element X (1 Faraday = 96,500c) . ( 2mks)
ii. Write the formula of hydroxide of X. ( 1mk)
7. Study the following flow chart and answer the questions that follow:
i. Alcohol R (1mk)
ii. Compound S (1mk)
b. Name process T ( 1mK)
8. 60cm³
of oxygen gas diffuses through a porous plug in 50 seconds. How long will it take 80cm³
of
sulphur ( iv) oxide to diffuse through the same plug under the same conditions. (S = 32 O = 16 )
( 3mks)
9. Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that follow.
ii. Calculate the mass of the salt that crystallized out. (1mk)
10.
a. State two conditions necessary for rusting to occur.(1mk)
b. State the two reasons why tin coating is used in food cans. (2mks)
11. A form one student was supplied with a colourless liquid which was suspected to be water.
i. Describe one chemical test that could be carried out to show that the liquid is water.(2mks)
ii. How could it have been shown that one liquid was pure water (1mk)
12. During extraction of copper, the ore is first concentrated and roasted to produce copper (I)
Sulphide.
i. Name the ore from which copper is commonly extracted. (1mk)
ii. Write an equation for the reaction in which copper (I) sulphide is produced by roasting the
ore in air .(1mk)
iii. Give one effect that the process in (ii) above could have on the environment. ( 1mk)
iv. Give one use of copper metals (1mk)
13.
a. Name two cations that are present in hard water. (1mk)
b. Explain how the ion exchange resin softened had water.(2mks)
14. Below is a representation of an electrochemical cell.
Pb (s)/ Pb 2+
(aq) // Ag+
(aq) / Ag(s)
a. What does / / represent ? ( 1mk)
b. Given the following: EƟ
(V)
Pb2+(aq) + 2e → Pb(s) - 0.13
Ag+(aq) + e → Ag (s) + 0.80
Calculate the e.m.f of the electrochemical cell. (2mks)
15. Distingush between ionization energy and electron affinity of an element (1mk)
16. Calculate the percentage by mass of copper in copper (ii) carbonate salt.
( Cu = 64, C= 12, 0 = 16 ) ( 3mks)
17. What name is given to elements which appear in group (II) of the periodic table? ( 1mk)
18. Explain why the following substances conduct an electric current
a. Magnesium metal ( 1mk)
b. Molten magnesium chloride ( 1 mk)
19. The chromatography below was obtained from a contaminated food sample P. Contaminants Q, R,
S and T are suspected to be in P. Use it to answer the following questions.
ii. Identify the contaminants in mixture P.( 1mk)
iii. Which is the most soluble contaminant in P. ( 1mk)
20.
a. Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon. What is meant by an allotrope? (1 mk)
b. Explain why graphite can be used as a lubricant while diamond cannot. (2mks)
21. Where 15cm³ of a gaseous hydrocarbon,p, was burnt in 100 cm³
of oxygen, the resulting gaseous mixture occupied 70cm³
at room temperature and pressure. When the gaseous mixture was
passed through potassium hydroxide solution, its volume decreased to 25cm³
a. What volume of oxygen was used during the reaction?. (1mk)
b. Determine the molecular formular of the hydrocarbon. (2mks)
22. In terms of structure and bonding, explain the following observations:
a. The melting point of aluminium is higher than that of sodium. (1⁄2 mks)
b. Melting point of chlorine is lower than that of sulphur. (11⁄2 mks)
23. The set up below was used to investigate the reaction between dry hydrogen gas and copper (II) oxide.
ii. State the observation made in the combustion tube. (1mk)
iii. Explain the observations made in (ii) above. (1 mk)
24. Hydrogen chloride gas can be prepared by reacting sodium chloride with an acid.
a. Write an equation for the reaction between sodium chloride and the acid. ( 1mk)
b. Give two chemical properties of hydrogen chloride gas (1mk)
c. State two uses of hydrogen chloride gas. (1mk)
25. State and explain what would happen if a dry red litmus paper was dropped in a gas jar of dry
chlorine. (2mks)
26. By using aqueous sodium chloride describe how a student can distinguish calcium ions from lead ions. (2mks)
27. Given the following substances: wood ash lemon juice and sodium chloride
a. Name one commercial indicator that can be used to show whether wood, lemon juice and
sodium chloride are acidic, basic or neutral. (1mk)
b. Classify the substances in 27(a) above as acids, bases or neutral.(2mks)
28.A solution was made by dissolving 8.2g of calcium nitrate to give 2 litres of solution. Determine the concentration of nitrate ions in moles per litre. (3mks)
1.
a. Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that follow.
(The letters do not represent the actual symbol of the substances).
I. Over water. Explain. {2 marks}
II. By downward displacement of air. (Density of air is 1.29 x 10-3 g/cm3 at
room temperature). {1 mark}
ii. Which substance would dissolve in water and could be separated from the solution
by fractional distillation? Explain. {2 marks}
iii. Which substance is a liquid at room temperature and when mixed with water two
layers would be formed? {1 mark}
b. The grid below shows part of a periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that
follow.
i. Name the Group to which element I and Q belong. {1 mark}
ii. Which letter represents the element that is least reactive? {1 mark}
iii. Name the type of bond that is formed between element H and L when they react.
Explain. {2 marks}
iv. Write the chemical formula of the compound formed when element J and Oxygen
gas react. {1 mark}
v. On the grid, indicate with a tick (√) the position of element R, which forms R3- ions
and is in the third period of the Periodic Table. {1 mark}
2.a. A form four student investigated a property of acids C and E by reacting equal volumes of 1 M sodium hydroxide solution with equal volumes of acid C and E of the same concentration.
The results obtained were recorded in the table below.
ii. Write a chemical equation for the reaction between Sodium hydroxide solution and
aqueous ethanoic acid. {1 mark}
b.
i. What is molar heat of vaporization? {1 mark}
ii. The formation of Hydrogen peroxide under standard conditions is represented by
the following thermochemical equations:
H2(g) + O2(g) → H202(g) ΔHθ
f
= -133 kJ/mol
H2(g) + O2(g) → H202(l) ΔHθ
f
= -188 kJ/mol
Draw an energy cycle diagram that links the above two thermochemical
equations. {3 marks}
iii. Calculate the molar heat of vaporiz ation of hydrogen peroxide. {1 mark}
iv. Write the thermochemical equation for the molar heat of vaporization of Hydrogen
peroxide. {1 mark}
c.
i. What is a fuel? {1 mark}
ii. Natural gas, coal and oil are known as fossil fuels. They are major sources of
energy.
Hydrogen gas is also a source of energy.
I. State and explain two reasons why Hydrogen is a very attractive fuel
compared to fossils. {2 marks}
II. State one disadvantage of using Hydrogen fuel instead of fossil fuels.{1
mark}
3. The flow chart below is a simplified version of the steps in the manufacture of Sodium carbonate.
b. Name three main raw materials of the above process. {3 marks}
c. Name substance M. {1 mark}
d. Name the process taking place in step II. {1 mark}
e. Identify by-product Y and write a balanced chemical equation to show how it is formed.
{2 marks}
f. 98.123 Kg of Sodium hydrogen carbonate was manufactured in this process.
i. What is solid Z. {1 mark}
ii. Write a chemical equation for the formation of solid Z. {1 mark}
iii. Determine in Kilograms, how much of solid Z was produced in this process. (Na =
23, H = 1, 0 = 16, C = 12) {3 marks}
4.a. Study the standard reduction potentials for elements R, T, U, V and W given below and
answer the questions that follow. (The letters are not the actual symbols of the elements).
ii. Which element is likely to be Hydrogen? Give a reason for your answer. {2 marks}
iii. Draw in the space provided below, a labelled diagram of the electrochemical cell
that would be obtained when half-cells of elements T and V are combined. {3
marks}
iv. On the diagram (iii) above:
I. draw an arrow showing direction of flow of electrons. {1 mark}
II. Label by naming the anode and cathode of the electrochemical cell.{1
mark}
v. Determine the E0 value of the electrochemical cell constructed in (iii) above.{2
marks}
b. 1.48 g of Copper metal were deposited when current was passed through aqueous Copper
(II) Sulphate for 2 hours 30 minutes during purification of Copper in electrolysis. Determine
the amount of current used. (Cu= 63.5, IF= 96500 C) {3 marks}
5.a. The following scheme represents various reactions starting with pro-1-ene. Use it to answer the questions that follow.
ii. Write the formula of organic compound Y. {1 mark}
iii. State one reagent that can be used in:
I. Step I {1 mark}
II. Step II {1 mark}
iv. Name compound V and state one of its use. {1 mark}
v.I. Name gas Q. {1 mark}
II. Write the equation of the reaction in step III {1 mark}
III. Name organic compound Y. {1 mark}
b. The structure shown below represents the monomer of natural rubber.
6. Below is a simplified diagram of a blast furnace used in the extraction of iron from its ores. Study it and answer the questions that follow.
b. The iron obtained from the blast furnace has a melting point of 1200°C while that of pure
iron is 1535°C. Explain. {1 mark}
c. What is the purpose of limestone in the blast furnace? {1 mark}
d. State one physical property of molten slag other than density that allows it to be separated
from molten iron as shown in the diagram above. {1 mark}
e. State one use of fire-brick lining in the blast furnace. {1 mark}
f.
i. Name one of the reducing agents used to reduce iron {III) oxide to iron metal in the
blast furnace. {1 mark}
ii. Using the named reducing agent in f(i) above and iron (III) oxide, write an
equation involving this reaction. {1 mark}
g. Explain why the temperature in the region marked A is higher than that of the incoming hot
air. {1 mark}
h.
i. What name is given to the 90- 95% pure iron obtained from the blast furnace? {1
mark
ii. lron from the blast furnace contains about 5% carbon. State how the carbon
content is reduced. {1 mark}
7.a. A sample of water containing 0.001 moles of calcium hydrogencarbonate was added to 90
cm³ of 0.01M calcium hydroxide.
i. Write an equation for the reaction that took place. {1 mark}
ii. Calculate the number of moles of calcium ions in 90 cm³ of 0.01M calcium
hydroxide. {1 mark}
iii. What would be observed if soap solution was added dropwise to a sample of the
water that had been added to calcium hydroxide. Give a reason. {2 marks}
b. The column below was used to soften hard water.
ii. After sometime the material in the column is not able to soften hard water. How can
the material be regenerated?
iii. State one disadvantage of using hard water in boilers. {1 mark}
c. Identify the reagent that acts as a base in the equation below. Give a reason. {2 marks}
1. You are provided with:
Solution A, Dilute hydrochloric acid.
Solution B, made by dissolving 0.5g of sodium hydroxide in water and made to
250cm³
of solution.
Solid C, Magnesium ribbon.
Phenolphthalein indicator.
You are required to:
i. Standardize solution A.
ii. Determine the rate of reaction between solution A and magnesium.
Procedure I:
i. Measure exactly 1 Ocm³ of solution A using a burette and transfer into a 250ml
volumetric flask. Top up to the mark using distilled water and shake thoroughly. Label this
solution D.
ii. Drain the remaining solution A in the burette, rinse the burette thoroughly and fill
the burette with solution D.
iii. Pipette 25cm³ of solution B into a conical flask. Add three drops of phenolphthalein indicator.
iv. Titrate solution D with solution B. Record your results in the table below.
Repeat procedures (i) to (iv) to complete the table.
b. Write an equation for the reaction that took place. (1 mark)
c. Calculate the molarity of sodium hydroxide solution.(Na =23,0=16,H=l ) (1 mark)
d. Calculate the number of moles of sodium hydroxide reacted. (1 mark)
e. Calculate the number of moles of hydrochloric acid in 250cm³ of solution D.
(2marks).
f. Calculate the m9larity of hydrochloric acid in solution A. (1 mark)
Procedure II:
i. Cut solid C into equal pieces, each 2cm long.(I mark)
ii. Using a burette, measure 12cm³ of solution A, into a clean boiling tube.
iii. Drop one piece of solid C into the boiling tube containing solution A and start the
stopwatch immediately. Stop the stopwatch when all solid C has just disappeared
(dissolved).
Record your results in the table below.
iv. Repeat steps (ii) and (iii) above using 10.0cm³
c. From the graph, determine the time taken for the reaction to reach completion
when 1.5 moles of solution A are used. (2 marks)
d. Comment on the shape of the graph. (1 mark)
2. You have been provided with solid Q, Which is a mixture of two compounds.
You are required to carry out the test below and record your observations and inferences in the
spaces provided below.
Procedure
i. Put a spatulaful of mixture Q in a boiling tube.
ii. Add about 7cm³
of distilled water to the mixture and shake thoroughly. Filter the mixture.
iii. Wash the residue with distilled water and keep both the residue and the filtrate.
x. Add some dilute 2M Nitric (V) acid while shaking until all the solid dissolves.
xi. Divide the solution into three portions.
xii. To the first portion add 2M sodium hydroxide a few drops till in excess.
Section A (30 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions in this section.
1. Give four methods of applying fertilizers to crops. (2 marks)
2. State four beneficial biotic factors that influence agriculture. (2 marks)
3. Give four branches of Agriculture. (2 marks)
4. State four advantages of co-operative land tenure system. (2 marks)
5. State four benefits of organic mulch in crop production. (2 marks)
6. State four conditions under which shifting cultivation is practiced. (2 marks)
7. Give four effects of mass wasting. (2 marks)
8. Give four factors that affect the rooting of cuttings. (2 marks)
9. Name four details that are included in a farm marketing record. (2 marks)
10. Give four examples of product-product relationships in the management of agricultural
enterprises. (2 marks)
11. State three entries that are made in a journal.(1½ marks)
12. Give two reasons for cutting back pyrethrum. (1 mark)
13. State three parameters used to indicate national development. (1½ mark)
14. State four symptoms of viral diseases in crops. (2 marks)
15. Give four reasons for draining land as part of land reclamation. (2 marks)
16. State two reasons for topping a pasture. (1 mark)
17. State two advantages of metal pipes over plastic pipes in piping water in the farm. (1 mark)
Section B (30 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions in this section.
18. Study the following weeds and answer questions that follow.
b. What makes weed K difficult to control? (1 mark)
c. Give the economic importance of weed J. (1 mark)
d. State one reason that makes weeds excellently adapted to various environments. (1 mark)
19. Study the diagram below of a method of compost making and answer the questions that follow.
b. State four factors to consider when siting the structure. (2 marks)
c. What is the function of the following materials in preparation of compost manure
i. Top soil (1 mark)
ii. Wood ash (1 mark)
20. Two maize pests are shown in the diagram below. Study them and answer questions that follow.
b. At what stage of maize production does each pest damage the crop? (2 marks)
c. Give one way of controlling each of the pests in the field. (2 marks)
21. The diagram below represents a vegetative material used to prepare a certain crop.
Study them and answer the questions that follow.
ii. Give the name of the preparation done on the material to make it ready for planting. (1
mark
iii. State three advantages of carrying out the practice in (ii) above before planting. (3 marks)
Section C (40 MARKS)
Answer ANY TWO questions from this section in the spaces provided
22.
a. Describe the growing of dry bean seeds under the following subheadings.
- Selection and preparation of planting materials (3 marks)
- Planting (4 marks)
- Weeding (3 marks)
b. Describe the environmental conditions that may lead to low crop yields. (10 marks)
23.
a. Explain six factors considered in designing a crop rotation programme. (6 marks)
b. Explain the factors that influence the type of irrigation to be used in a farm. (8 marks)
c. Explain six post-harvest practiced carried out on production of maize. (6 marks)
24.
a. Explain five advantages of budgeting in farming. (10 marks)
b. Explain five various types of risks and uncertainties. (5 marks)
c. Describe the importance of pruning perennial crops. (5 marks)
SECTION A (30 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. Give three factors that affect the quality of honey. (1½ marks)
2. State three conditions that make a cow to withhold milk during milking. (1½ marks)
3. State four signs of furrowing observed in pigs. (2 marks)
4. Give three factors that may make birds to lay eggs on the floor in a deep litter. (1½ marks)
5. Give three characteristics of clean and high quality milk. (1½ marks)
6. Outline four control measures of round worms. (2 marks)
7. State four signs of liver fluke infestation in cattle. (2 marks)
8. Give four reasons of breeding in cattle. (2 marks)
9. List four methods of preserving fish. (2 marks)
10. Name two classes of livestock feedstuffs. (1 mark)
11. Give two roles of ovaries in cows’ reproductive system. (1 mark)
12. Give two reasons for flushing in sheep. (1 mark)
13. Give four reasons for treating timber used in construction of farm buildings. (2 marks)
14. State four factors that influence the daily water intake in an animal. (2 marks)
15. Name two functions of a clutch in the tractors transmission system. (1 mark)
16. Give four characteristics of a good calf pen. (2 marks)
17. State four factors that influence the choice of the poultry system of rearing to use. (2 marks)
18. State four routine management practices carried out on a replacement stock that is a heifer. (2 marks)
Section B (20 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided.
19. The diagram below is a cross section of part of a cow's udder.
b. Name two hormones that control milk let down in a dairy cow. (2 marks)
c. What is a dry cow therapy? (1 mark)
20. The diagram below shows the head of a chicken having symptoms of a poultry disease
b. Give two reasons why the disease is of economic importance. (2 marks)
c. Outline two methods of controlling the above disease. (2 marks)
21. The following diagram shows parts of a roof. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.
b. State the functions of P and Q. (2 marks)
c. Give two chemical preservatives for treating timber before use in the construction of farm
structures. (2 marks)
22. Below is a diagram of power transmission system of tractor engine.
Study it and answer the question that follows.
b. State the functions of E and H. (2 marks)
Section C (40 MARKS)
Answer ANY TWO questions from this section.
23.
a. Describe five pre-disposing factors of livestock diseases. (5 marks)
b. Describe six mechanical methods of controlling ticks. (6 marks)
c. Describe the factors that affect milk composition of a cow. (9 marks)
24.
a. State five advantages of farm mechanization. (5 marks)
b. Explain five advantages of using a mould board plough in seed bed preparation. (5 marks)
c. Describe the use of various materials in construction of a Kenya Top bar hive. (5 marks)
d. Outline the care and maintenance of a tractor water cooling system. (5 marks)
25.
a. State four physical characteristics of a dairy cow. (4 marks)
b. State nine factors to consider when selecting livestock for breeding. (9 marks)
c. Describe milk fever in dairy cattle under the following sub-headings.
i. The cause of the disease (1 mark)
ii. Symptoms of the disease (4 marks)
iii. Control measures (2 marks)
1. Name the reagent used for testing presence of (3 marks)
a. Starch
b. Reducing sugars
c. Vitamin c
2. State the processes which occur in each of the following organelles. (2 marks)
a. Chloroplast
b. Mitochondrion
c. Ribosomes
3. A student observed a specimen through a light microscope. He used the objective lens marked
X40.If he indicated the magnification of the image as x 400, what was the eye - piece
magnification? (Show your working). (3 marks)
4. State the function of the following in mammalian trachea. (3 marks)
a. Rings of cartilage
b. Mucus
c. Cilia
5.
a. What do you understand by the term biological control?
(1 mark)
b. Explain why all the energy produced by producers does not flow to the tertiary consumers.
(2marks)
6. Name any three forces that maintain the transpiration stream (3 marks)
7. Give the form in which the following gases are transported in blood. (3 marks)
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon (IV) oxide
c. Carbon (II) oxide
8.
a. Name the main group of organisms which comprise the Kingdom Monera. ( 1mark)
b. State any three ways in which the organisms named in 8 (a) above affect human lives.
(3marks)
c. State the main characteristics of Monera which distinguish it from all other kingdoms. (1
mark)
9. State ways in which the xylem tissue is adapted to carry out its function. ( 3marks)
10. Why is it necessary for an athlete to breathe heavily after running? ( 2 marks)
11. State ways in which the following diseases can be prevented
a. Typhoid and amoebic dysentery (2 marks)
b. Malaria (2 marks)
12. What are the three distinguishing features of phylum Arthropoda? (3marks)
13.
a. Name the main product of the dark stage of photosynthesis. ( 1mark)
b. What is the role of chlorophyll during photosynthesis (2mark)
14. Name three mechanisms that prevent self-pollination in flowers that have both male and female
parts. (3 marks)
15. State three applications of anaerobic respiration. (3 marks)
16. What is the significance of highly folded inner membrane of a mitochondrion? (2 marks)
17. Why is it necessary for blood from the gut to pass through the liver before joining general
circulation? (2 marks)
18. A person’s urine tested positive for reducing sugars.
a. Name the type of sugar present in the urine. ( 1mark)
b. Name the gland and the hormone which failed to control the above condition. ( 2marks)
Gland.................................
Hormone...........................
c. Which disease was the person suffering from? ( 1mark)
19. State two roles played by the process of reproduction. ( 2marks)
20. What is the habitat of the following plants? ( 3marks)
a. Xerophytes
b. Hydrophytes
c. Halophytes
21.
a. State ways in which molars are adapted to their functions. ( 2marks)
b. Name any two dental diseases. (2 marks)
22. How is the sperm cell adapted to carry out its function? (3 marks)
23. The following are diagrams of two pollen grains.
a. State one observable difference between K and L. (1 mark)
b. State the agent of pollination for each of them. (2 marks)
K...................................................
L...................................................
24. How do sunken stomata reduce transpiration? ( 2 marks)
25. Give the classes to which the following animals belong. ( 3 marks)
a. Human being
b. House fly
c. Spider
26.
a. State one event that occurs in prophase of meiosis I which does not occur in prophase of
mitosis. (1 mark)
b. What are the results of the above phenomena? (2 marks)
27. Explain why growing grass die a few days when salt is sprinkled on it. (3 marks)
Biology Paper 2 - 2020 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1
1.
a. What is meant by the following terms?
i. Protandry ( 1mark)
ii. Self sterility ( 1mark)
b. The diagram below shows a stage during fertilization in a plant.
i. Name the parts labelled Q,R and S (3 marks)
Q................................................
R................................................
S................................................
ii. State two functions of the pollen tube (2 marks)
iii. On the diagram label the microphyle. (1mark)
2.
a. Explain what happens to excess amino acids in the liver of humans. (3marks)
b. Which portions of the human nephron are only found in the cortex? (3 marks)
c.
i. What would happen if a person produced less antidiuretic hormone? (1 mark)
ii. What term is given to the condition described in C (i) above? (1mark)
3.
a.
i. What is meant by the term biological control? (1mark)
ii. Give an example of biological control. (1mark)
b.
i. What is eutrophication? (3marks)
ii. What are the effects of eutrophication? (3 marks)
c. Name a substance that is responsible for acid rain. (1mark)
4. Leaves are the organs of photosynthesis. The following diagram shows what happens in a plant
leaf during photosynthesis.
a. Give two ways in which leaves are adapted to absorb light. (2 marks)
b. Name the gases labelled X and Y. ( 2marks)
X..........................................
Y..........................................
c. Name the tissue which transport:
i. Water in to the leaf. ( 1 mark)
ii. Sugars out of the leaf. (1 mark)
d. Explain why it is an advantage for the plant to store carbohydrates as starch rather than as
sugars. (2marks)
5. Some millet seeds were socked in water for two days. They were then broken into small pieces and
placed on the surface of agar containing starch. After two days it was found that the agar no
longer contained starch.
a. Suggest how the test for starch in the agar was carried out. (1 mark)
b. Explain why there was no starch in the agar after two days. (2marks)
c. Why was it necessary to soak the seeds? (1mark)
d. Why were the millet seeds broken into small pieces? (1mark)
e. State the observation that would be made if the seeds had been soaked in boiling water? (
1mark)
f. Suggest a control experiment that would have been suitable. ( 2marks)
SECTION B:
Answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided after question 8
6. A research was carried to determine the trend of growth of some boys and girls.Their average
mass in kilograms was taken separately for a period of 20 years and tabulated as shown in the
table below.
Age Average mass of boys (kg) Average mass of girls (kg)
0 2.5 2.5
2 11.5 11.5
4 15.0 16.0
6 18.5 19.3
8 22.1 27.1
10 25.1 27.1
12 27.5 30.5
14 37.0 35.5
16 44.0 44.0
18 46.9 52.0
20 48.5 55
a. On the same axis draw a graph of the average mass of the girls and boys against age.
(7marks)
b. From the graph , determine the;-
i. Mass of boys at the age of 11 years. (1 mark)
ii. Growth rate of girls between ages 13 and 15. ( 3 marks)
c. Account for the change in the mass of girls during the age stated in (ii) above. (2 marks)
d. Explain the trend observed in the curves for both boys and girls. ( 2 marks)
e. Why do girls above 10 years require in take of food that is richer in iron than boys of the
same age? (2 marks)
f. Apart from using average mass to estimate growth in human beings, name two other
parameters that can be used. (2 marks)
7. Describe how the various parts of the human digestive system are adapted to their functions. (20
marks)
8.
a. State the causes of air pollution. (5 marks)
b. State how air pollutants affect organisms hence state how air pollution should be
controlled. (15 marks)
1.
a. You are provided with a solution L. Using the reagents provided; determine the food
compounds in L. Fill in the table below.
solution in the visking tubing increases in volume
ii. Account for the observation in b (i) above. (2marks)
Water moves by osmosis; in the visking tubing due to the high osmotic pressure of
the solution in the visking tubing
iii. Give the equivalent of a visking in the bodies of living organisms. (1mark)
Cell membrane/plasma membrane/plasmalema
2. Study the photomicrograph of the longitudinal section of a maize fruit below and answer the questions that follow.
a.
i. Name the parts labelled A, B, C and D. (4marks)
A – Endosperm
B – Radicle
C - Plumule
D – Plumule sheath/coleoptile
ii. Give the role played by A and D. (2 marks)
A - stores food for the embryo;
D - protects the delicate plumule from mechanical damage;
b.
i. Name the type of germination exhibited by maize grain. ( 1 mark)
hypogeal;
< b>ii. Place the organisms from where the photomicrograph was obtained into its
Kingdom
Division
Class (3marks)
Kingdom – Plantae; Rej plant
Division – spermatophyte
Class –Monocotyledonae; rej monocot/monocotyledon
iii. State three characteristics of members of the class identified in b (ii) above
(3marks
c. Give one reason why the maize grain is classified as a fruit. (1mark)
Has two scars;
3. Study the organisms drawn below and answer the questions that follow.
a. Use the dichotomous key below to identify the class the organisms belong to. (12
marks)
a.
a. Phylum Chordata ............................................................... go to 2
b. Phylum arthropoda ............................................................. go to 3
b.
a. Has scales on the body ......................................................... go to 4
b. Has no scales on the body ..................................................... Mammalia
c.
a. Has cephalothorax .............................................................. Arachnida
b. Has no cephalothorax .......................................................... go to 5
d.
a. Has fins ........................................................................... Pisces
b. Has no fins ........................................................................ go to 7
e.
a. Has three pairs of legs .......................................................... Insecta
b. Has more than three pairs of legs ............................................. go to 6
f.
a. Two pairs of legs per segment ................................................ Diplopoda
b. One pairs of legs per segment ................................................. Chilopoda
g.
a. Has feathers ...................................................................... Aves
b. Has no feathers .................................................................. go to 8
h.
a. Has a tail .......................................................................... Reptilia
b. Has no tail ....................................................................... Amphibia
Specimen Step followed Identity
A
B
C
D
E
F
b. Magnification = Diagram length/ Actual length =
50mm/100mm;
= ×1⁄2 or ×0.5;
1.a. Three ways how air pressure influences weather
b. Two Global winds
2.a. Chemically formed sedimentary rocks
b. Conditions necessary for formation of coral
3.a. Two theories that explain the origin of the earth
b. Three proofs that the earth is oblate spheroid
4.a. Categories of lakes formed by earth movement
b. Examples from East Africa
5.a. Definition of hydrological cycle
It is the interchange of water between land, sea and air through the process of
evaporation, precipitation and percolation of water into the ground and the surface
run-off (2 marks)
b. Factors that determine the amount of water that sinks into the ground or flows
on the surface
6.a.i. Identify two human made features found at the grid square 2320
ii. What is the altitude of the highest point in the area covered by the map?
2362 metres a.s.l (2 marks)
iii. Three types of vegetation found in the area east of easting 40 and north
of northing 27
b.i. Bearing of air photo principle point at grid square 2931 form the air photo
principle point at grid square 3426
- 318 ± 1 (317o
– 319o
(2 marks)
ii. Measure the distance of the dry weather road (C640) form the junction at
point M(345142) to the junction at N(416200)give your answer in
kilometres
- 1 km ± 0.1 (12.0 – 12.2 km) (2 marks)
c.i. Draw a rectangle measuring 3 cm by 4 cm to represent area bounded by
easting’s 28 and 31 and northing’s 11 and 15
ii. On the rectangle draw, mark and name the following;
d.i. Identify four social services offered in Kitale Municipality
ii. Describe the drainages of the area covered by the map
7. Use the map below to answer questions (a) and (b)
a. Name;
i. The type of climate found in the shaded area marked Q. (1 mark) a.i. Polar / cold climate (1 mark)
ii. Ocean currents marked R and S
R – Canary ocean current
S – Gulf stream (2 marks)
b. Characteristics of the climate marked T
c. How the following factors influence climate
i. Altitude
ii. Distance from the sea
d.i. Effects of climate change to the physical environment
ii. Climatical conditions experienced in the Sahara desert
8.a.i. Factors that influence glacial erosion
ii. Parts labeled 1 to 6
b. Ways in which tills are formed at the coast
c.i. What is erratic?
ii. Examples of erratic’s
d.i. Types of interviews
ii. Problems the researcher would have experienced
9.a. What is natural vegetation?
Is the plant cover that exists on its own in an area without the interference of
external modifying influences like people and animals (Any 1 x 2 = 2 marks)
b.i. Types of vegetation found in the following countries
ii. State two factors why mountain tops have no vegetation
c.i. Explain four ways in which coniferous forest is adapted to the climate
conditions
ii. Explain how two following factors influence the distribution of vegetation;
Altitude
Human beings
d.i. State four reasons why it is necessary to have a route map
ii. Give two reasons you need a tape measure
10.a.i. What is soil?
Soil is the uppermost surface layer of loose or unconsolidated material
which overlies the crucial rocks and on which plants grow (2 marks)
ii. Three components of soils
b.i. Soil layers marked B, C, and D
ii. Two main processes of formation of soil in horizon A
Elluviation
Leaching (2 marks)
iii. Characteristics of soil in horizon B
c. Explain how the following helps in the maintenance of soil fertility and quality
Crop rotation
Mixed farming
Keeping of animals and growing of crops in the same piece of land improves
the fertility of the soil. This is because manure form the animals is used to
enrich the soil with minerals (2 marks)
Bush fallowing
When land is cultivated for some time and left to rest for a given period it
improves the quality of soil in that the land regains its fertility during the
period of rest (2 marks)
d. State five uses of soils to human activities
1.a. Two underground mining methods
b. Negative effects of mining on the environment
Pits left after mining are filled with water that form breeding ground for mosquitoes
Leads to disruption of water table (Any 3 x 1 = 3 marks)
2.a. List down three human factors that favour wildlife conservation
b. State two advantages of domestic tourism
3.a. What is floods?
Floods are unusual covering of an area by water through a temporary rise of the
level of a river lake or sea (Any 1 x 2 = 2 marks)
b. Three rivers that cause large scale flood in Kenya
4.a. Define the following terms
i. Fertility rate
It is the total number of children / births that a woman would have between
the ages of 15 – 49 years (1 x 1 = 1 mark)
ii. Mortality rate
This is the average number of deaths per 1000 in a given population
(1 x 1 = 1 mark)
b. Types of information that may be derived from an age sex pyramid
5.a. Towns marked
P – Tanga
Q – Arusha
R – Dodoma (3 x 1 = 3 marks)
b. Two major functions of the town marked S
Mainly an agricultural collection centre
Industrial centre with too many light industries
Administrative centre (Any 2 x 1 = 2 marks)
SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section
6.The table below shows the value of export crops from Kenya in the year 1995.
b. State four physical conditions that favour coffee growing in Kenya highlands
c. Processing of coffee form harvesting to marketing
d. List three ways in which planted coffee is taken care by farmers
7.a.i. Identify the irrigation schemes marked X, Y and Z and in each case the
main crop grown
X – Bunyala – Rice
Y – Perkerra – Onions
Z – Mwea Tebere – Rice Irrigation schemes 3 x 1 = 3 marks Crops 3 x 1 = 3
marks
ii. Explain four factors that have led to the location of irrigation scheme Y
iii. State four problems experienced in the irrigation project marked Z
b. What is a polder?
It is a reclaimed piece of land form the sea in the Netherlands
(1 x 2 = 2 marks)
c. Give five benefits of the Zuyder Zee project
8.a.i. The two types of fishing grounds in Kenya
ii. Give two types of fishing methods
.iii. Four reasons why marine fishing industry is not well developed in east
Africa
b. Explain four ways in which marine fisheries are being conserved in Kenya
ensuring natural regeneration of fish (Any 4 x 2 = 8 marks)
ii. Name ocean currents marked Q and R
Q – Warm Gulf Stream
R – Cold Labrador (Any 2 x 1 = 2 marks)
d. Explain why major fishing grounds of the world are located in the temperate
latitudes of the northern hemisphere
9.a. Distinguish between manufacturing and tertiary industries
Manufacturing industries change raw materials into semi-finished / processed
products while tertiary industries provide services (1 x 2 = 2 marks)
b.i. Name four agricultural food processing industries in Kenya
ii. Explain four factors that influenced the location of the iron and steel
industries in the Ruhr region of Germany
c. Give five reasons why the government of Kenya encourages the development of
Jua Kali industries
d. Field study in a coffee factory near your school
i. State three reasons why you would visit the area of study in advance
ii. You have prepared a work schedule for the study, state three items you
would include in your schedule
10.a. Draw an outline map of Kenya
i. Kakamega forest
ii. Mt. Kenya forest
iii. Arabuka sokoko forest
c.i. Natural causes of forest depletion
d.i. State three factors favouring production of soft wood forests in Canada
ii. Explain three reasons why the Kenyan government should conserve her
forests
History Paper 1 Questions and Answers - 2020 K.C.S.E Prediction Set 1
Section A (25 MARKS)
1.Name the branch of history that deals with traditions, values and cultural practices of
people.
2.Name the only southern Cushites group remaining in Kenya.
3.Give two age sets among the Nandi in the pre-colonial period.
4.Apart from Vasco de gamma, name two other Portuguese generals who conquered the
East African Coast.
5.State the main way through which one qualifies to be a Kenyan citizen by their birth.
If on the day of birth either the mother or the father of the person was or is a citizen.
6.Give one economic factor that promotes national unity in Kenya.
7.State two functions of a constitution.
8.What is direct or pure democracy?
9.Apart from the Nandi, which other two communities resisted British invasion in Kenya.
10.Who introduced settler farming in Kenya.
11.Name two nationalists outside central Kenya who were detained at Kapenguria in 1952.
12.Give the main political challenge that faced Mzee Jomo Kenyatta immediately after
independence.
13.State two electoral offences that are applicable to a voter.
14.Mention the document in which African socialism as a national philosophy was
expounded.
15.State two ways through which the government has encouraged the preservation of
African culture since independence.
16.Name two members of the county executive committee.
17.Give the main function of the commission on revenue allocation in Kenya.
To ensure equitable sharing of revenue between national and county government.
SECTION B(45 MARKS)
Answer three questions only from this section.
18.a.State five results of the settlement of Luo during pre-colonial period.
b.Describe the social organization of the Maasai in the 19th
a.State five reasons why the Portuguese built Fort Jesus in 1593.
b.Explain five results of the coming of Christian missionaries to Kenya.
20.a.State three roles of Mekatilili wa Menza in the Agiriama resistance against
the British.
.Explain six effects of the Wanga collaboration against invasion in western Kenya.
21.a.State five factors that prompted the colonial government to construct the Kenya
–Uganda railway.
b.Explain five factors that intensified African Nationalism in Kenya after 1945.
b.Explain five reasons why human rights are important in Kenya.
24.a.State three ways in which the High court supervises the work of the subordinate
courts.
b.Explain six functions of the cabinet in Kenya.
Answer all questions from this section.
1.Give two disadvantages of using electronic sources to study history and government.
2.Who was the architect of the theory of Evolution.
3.Mention one river associated with early agriculture in Mesopotamia.
4.Give two roles of the takshifs during the Trans-Sharan trade.
5.What is the main limitation of use of airships in transport.
6.Give two disadvantages of use of radio.
7.State two political effects of industrial revolution in Europe.
8.Identify the main factor that contributed to the growth of Athens in ancient Greece.
9.Name the main symbol of unity among the shona in the 19th Century.
10.State two ways in which the partition of Africa affected Europeans.
11.What was the name of the company that administered Zimbambwe on behalf of Britain?
12.Apart from Nelson Mandela, mention any other Nationalist in South Africa.
13.Identify two reasons why united states of America was reluctant to join the First World
War on the side of Allies.
14.Give two specialized agencies of the United Nations which deals with provision of loans
to member countries.
15.Identify two organs of economic community of west African states (ECOWAS)
16.Identify the main principal of the Arusha declaration of 1967.
17.Give one major political party in India.
SECTION B (45 MARKS)
Answer any three questions only from this section.
18.a.What three challenges did the early man face as he lived in caves.
b.Explain six effects of development of early agriculture in Egypt.
19.a.State three factors that facilitated the acaulistion of slaves during the Trans-
Saharan trade.
b.Explain six factors that led to the decline of Trans-Saharan trade.
20.a.What five factors characterized industrialization in Britain.
b.Explain the problems facing industrialization in South Africa.
21.a.Identify five factors that enabled Europeans to easily conquer Africa during the
scramble.
The invention of steamships made the Europeans access Africa easily.
b.Explain five reasons why assimilation failed in Senegal.
SECTION C (30 MARKS)
Answer any two questions from this section.
22.a.State five peace treaties signed between Allies and the central powers to bring
peace in Europe.
b.Explain five social effects of World War II.
23.a.State five reasons why pan Africanism became more active in Africa after 1945.
b.Explain five functions of the United Nations Security Council.
24.a.Mention three ways of becoming a member of parliament in Britain.
b.Explain six functions of the president in USA.
1.a. Outline seven importance of CRE to a secondary school student in Kenya. (7mks)
b. Describe the second account of creation in Genesis 2:4b-25. (7mks)
c. Give six traditional African views of creation. (6mks)
2.a. Describe the call of Moses in Exodus 3:1-22. (8 marks)
b. Give reasons why Moses was reluctant to go back to Egypt. (6 marks)
c. What do Christians learn about God from the call of Moses? (6 marks)
3.a. Outline seven ways in which King Jeroboam promoted the spread of idolatry in Israel.
b. Give seven reasons why Elijah was uncompromising in his attitude to the worship of Baal.
c. State six reasons why Christians should fight against the spread of devil worship in the society. (6 mks)
4.a. State six titles given to prophets in the Old Testament. (6mks)
b. Explain the evils committed by four nations that were to be punished by God according
to Prophet Amos. (8mks)
c. Mention six ways how Christians can avoid God’s punishment today. (6mks)
5.a. Describe how the people of Judah renewed their covenant with God under the leadership of Ezra. (8 marks)
b. Give five reasons why Nehemiah carried out religious reforms in Judah. (5 marks)
c. In what ways do Christians renew their covenant faith with God? (7 marks)
6.a. Identify seven occasions when prayers were conducted in Traditional African societies.
b. Outline seven roles of kinship system in traditional African society. (7 mks)
c. What changes have taken place in property ownership in Traditional African communities.
1.a. What the Magnificat reveals about the nature of God.
b. Six activities that took place when Jesus was born
c. Seven ways through which Christians in Kenya express their joy for the birth of
Jesus.
2.a. Giving examples state seven methods used by Jesus to spread the gospel.
b. Reasons why Jesus chose the twelve disciples.
c. Identify problems faced by new converts in the church today
3.a. With reference to the life and ministry of Jesus, show how he tried to promote
social equality
b. With the story of the sinful woman as a reference, explain Jesus teachings on
forgiveness
c. Give ways in which Christians engage themselves in the healing ministry
4.a. Give seven reasons why Jesus sent the Holy Spirit to his disciples after
ascension
b. List seven fruits of the Holy Spirit
c. How are the gifts of the Holy Spirit manifested in the church today?
5.a. Outline eight Christians teaching on work
b. Give six factors that causes increased unemployment in Kenya today
c. How does the church help to reduce the rate of unemployment in Kenya
b. Give reasons why Christians should not involve themselves in gambling
c. How is corruption affecting the society in Kenya today?
Prediction Set 1
1.Physical resources
2.Importance of entrepreneurship in a country
3.Personal attributes of a secretary
4.Circumstances under which a credit note is issued
5.Challenges facing cooperative societies
6.Benefits of containeristaion
7.Advantages of E-mail
8.Factors that may limit the effectiveness of a warehouse
9.Movement along a supply curve and shift of supply curve
11.Monopoly vs monopolistic competition
13.Limitations of using National income statistics to measure standard of living
14.State the efecct of each of the follwoing transactions on a balance sheet total. Use increase,decrease and No effect (4 mark)
a.Increase
b.Decrease
c.No effect
d.Decrease
15.The following information was extracted from Kariuki Enterprise for the month ended 31st Augsut 2015
Gross profits 24000
Total expenses 80000
Total revenue income 10% of sales
Mark up percentage 25%
Prepare a profit and loss Account for the months (4 mark)
16. Factors of demand for money
18.Disadvantages of division of labor
19.Advantages of government involvement in business activities
20. Re-insurance circumstance
21.i.Competitive advertising
Advertising which is aimed at convincing a customer to prefer a particular product
ii.Celebrity Advertising
Advertising where a famous person is used to endorse a product by identifying with
it e.g Nameless(muscles) yego etc
22.The diagram below shows the relationship between population trend and income per head
ii.Optimum population
iii.Under population
iv.Over population
23.Give in statement from the business transactions in the accounts below (4 marks)
2: Deposited cash from cash till o to the business account sh. 50,000
jan 8: Purchased stationery sh 10,000 and paid in cash
10: Purchased stationery worth shs. 4,000 and paid by cheque
24.In the spaces provided state the source document for each of the books of original entry (4 mark)
below
i.Outgoing credit note
iii.Incoming invoice/purchases invoice
iv.Outgoing invoice/sales invoice
Prediction Set 1
1.a.Importance of trade within a country.
b.Differences between a cooperative sociuety and a public company
During the month, the following transactions took place
Dec 2: Cash sale banked shs. 335,260
3: Bought goods in cash shs. 10,500
9: Paid Njeru a creditor shs. 190,000 by cheque in full settlement of his account after
deducting 5% cash discount
13: Received a cheque for sh. 158,400 from Maro after allowing her a cash discount of shs.
1,600
16: Paid salaries shs. 36,000 in cash
24: Withdrew shs. 100,000 from bank for office use
29: Nyangau, a debtor paid her account of 175,000 by cheque less 10% cash discount
31: Deposited all the cash into bank except shs. 33,490
Required: Prepare a three column cash book and balance it off (10 marks)
3.a.Reasons for which business should observe ethics practices
b.Factors that contribute to income disparity in Kenya
4.a.Circumstances under which a manufacturer would prefer to sell his products
direct to the consumer
b.Need for development planning
5.a.Explain five advantages of free trade
b.Need for consumer protection
6.a. The following information ws extracted from the books of Sahara traders fro the year ended 30th April, 2013
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b. Calculate the mid-ordinate for 5 strips between x = −2 and x = 3 and hence use the mid-
ordinate rule to aapproximate the area under the curve between x = −2, x = 3 and the x -
axis
x
-3
-2
-1
0
1
2
3
y
9
9
21
Mathematics Paper 2 - 2020 K.C.S.E Prediction Set 1
7. Make x the subject of the formula (3 marks)
No. of
children0
1
2
3
4
5
6
No. of
families4
2
4
7
8
3
2
a. In the tax year of 2014 the tax of Kamau's monthly income was Ksh 10,880. If he is entitled
to a tax relief of Ksh 1156.
Income in Kshs per month
Rate %
1 - 9680
10%
9681 - 18800
15%
18801 - 27920
20%
27921 - 37920
25%
Over 37920
30%
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Chemistry Paper 1 - 2020 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1
A mixture containing 40g salt G and 120g salt Y in 100g of water at 80o
was cooled to 50o
i. Which salt crystallized out?. Give a reason (2mks)
Salt
Solubility
g/100g water
At 50o C
At 80oc
G
43
58
Y
82
138
Chemistry Paper 2 - 2020 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1
Substance Density at room
temperature
g/cm3
Solubility in
water
Boiling point (oC) Melting point(oC)
U 0.8 Very soluble 78.5 -117
V 0.77 × 10-3 Very soluble -33 -78
W 1.6 Insoluble 77 -23
X 1.33 × 10-3 Slightly soluble -183 -219
i. Select the letter that represents a substance that is a gas at room temperature and
which can be collected:
Substance
Density at room
temperature
g/cm³Solubility in
waterBoiling point (°C)
Melting point(°C)
U
0.8
Very soluble
78.5
-117
V
0.77 × 10-³
Very soluble
-33
-78
W
1.6
Insoluble
77
-23
X
1.33 × 10-³
Slightly soluble
-183
-219
i. Select the letter that represent a weak acid. Explain. {2 marks}
Acid
C
E
Rise in temperature (Δt)k
4
2
Chemistry Paper 3 - 2020 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1
iv. Divide the filtrate into four portions
Observation
Inference
1 mark
1 mark
v. Add 5 drops of acidified 2M barium chloride to the first portion.
Observation
Inference
1 mark
1 mark
vi. Add 3 drops of 2M lead (II) nitrate solution to the second portion.
Observation
Inference
1 mark
1 mark
vii. Add 2M sodium hydroxide to the third portion dropwise until in excess.
Observation
Inference
1 mark
1 mark
viii. Add 2M ammonia solution to the fourth portion drop wise until in excess.
Observation
Inference
1 mark
1 mark
ix. Scrape the residue from the filter paper and transfer it into a boiling tube.
Observation
Inference
1 mark
1 mark
xiii. To the second portion add a few drops of 2M ammonia solution till in excess.
xiv. To the third portion add 5 drops of 2M hydrochloric acid and warm the mixture.
Observation
Inference
1 mark
1 mark
Observation
Inference
1 mark
1 mark
Agriculture Paper1 - 2020 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1
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b. Place 10mls of solution L in a visking tubing. Tie both ends and place it in 50mls of distilled
water contained in a beaker.leave the set up for 20 minutes and make observations.
i. Observations. (1mark)
FOOD COMPOUND
PROCEDURE
OBSERVATION
CONCLUSION
Starch
To 2cm3 of solution L
add drops of iodine
1mkColour turns brown
/yellow 1⁄2 mkStarch absent 1⁄2 mk
Reducing sugar
To 2cm3 of solution L
,add benedicts
solution and boil 1
markColour changes from
blue to green to
yellow/orange 1⁄2 mkReducing sugars
present 1⁄2 mk
proteins
To 2cm3 of solution L
add 3 drops of NaOH
followed by drops of
CuSO4 and shake 1mksolution remains blue
1⁄2 mkProtein absent 1⁄2 mk
Ascorbic acid
(vitamin c)To 2cm3 of solution
DCPIP add solution L
dropwise shaking till in
excess 1mkDCPIP decolourised 1⁄2
mkVitamin C /Ascorbic
acid present 1⁄2 mk
b. If the actual length from the tip of the mouth to the tip of the tail of the specimen B is 100mm, calculate the magnification. (2marks)
Specimen
Steps
Identity
A
1b,3a;
Arachnida
B
1a,2a,4a;
Pisces
C
1b,2b,5b,6b;
Chilopoda
D
1a,2a,4b,7b,8a
Reptilia
E
1a,2a,4b,7a;
Aves
F
1b,3b,5a;
Insecta
Geography Paper 1 Questions and Answers - 2020 K.C.SE Prediction Set
1
Geography Paper 2 Questions and Answers - 2020 K.C.SE Prediction Set
1
6.a.i.
Crop / Year
1995
Maize
224,000,000
Coffee
168,000,000
Tea
320,000,000
Horticultural
190,000,000
Total
902,000,000
HISTORY PAPER 2 Marking Scheme - 2020 K.C.SE Prediction Set 1
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
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Business Studies Paper 1 Questions and Answers - 2020 K.C.S.E
10.Effects of production activities on the envrionment
Movement
Shift
Only one supply curve involved
Involves two supply curves
Caused by change in the price of a commodty
Caused by other factors besides the prices
Is the quantity supplies that changes
It is the supply that changes
A different quantity is supplied only at a
different priceA differnt quantity is supplied at the same price
as before
Can be traced up and dpwn the smae curve
Cause the entire supply curve to move either to
the left or to the right
12.Factors that influences the choice of distribution channels
Monopoly
Monopolistic
Exists only one single seller
Exists more than one firm/seller
No close substitutes
Products are differentiated
Exercises full control of the market
No single firm controls a significant proportion of
the total market
The firm is the price giver/setter
A firm must exercise some caution before
changing the price
Demand curve steeply slopes from left to right
The demand curve slopes gently from left to
right
25.The cost of consumer goods and services for a representative basket of an average family is given
Book of original entry
Source document
i.Cash receipt Journal
ii. Return inwards Journal
iii. Purchases Journal
iv. Sales Journal
Demand curve steeply slopes from left to right
Business Studies Paper 2 Questions and Answers - 2020 K.C.S.E
2.a.On 1st December 2015, Mumbi traders had shs. 125,000 in hand and a a bank overdraft of
shs 97,000
Cooperative society
Public company
Members welfare motivated
Profit motivated
Serves members only
Serves the general public
Minimum of 10 adults
Minimum of 7 shareholders
One man one vote
One share carries one vote
Co-operates with other cooperatives
Compete with other companies
Governed by cooperative act
Governed by company act
Has one class of shares
Has several types of shares
Share not freely transferable
Share are freely transferable
Shs.
Sales
480000
Opening stock 1/5/2012
80,000
Opening stock 30/4/2012
120,000
Gross profit margin
25%
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